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I have transformed a Diophantine equation into the form $$ \frac{a-b-3}{a-b-1} = \frac{2(b-1)(a+1)}{a^2+b^2}, \tag{$\star$} $$ where $a > b \ge 1$ are integers. I want to prove that $a-b=3$ [thus forcing $b=1$]. It’s easy to show that $1 ≤ a-b ≤ 3$ has only the one desired solution. Now assuming $a-b ≥ 4$, I can say \begin{align} \frac{a-b-3}{a-b-1} \simeq 1, \end{align} and thus \begin{align} 1 &\simeq \frac{2(b-1)(a+1)}{a^2+b^2} \\ a^2+b^2 &\simeq 2(b-1)(a+1) \\ &= 2ab+2(b-a-1) \\ \therefore\quad (a-b)^2 &\simeq 2(b-a-1) ≤ 2(-4-1)=-10. \end{align}

With a strict equality, this would clearly be impossible; QED. The proof might also be valid if I can qualify precisely what is meant by “$\simeq$”, such that the contradiction holds.

QUESTION: How can I make this method of proof rigorous?

EDIT: In case it helps, I have proven that $$ab = 4(256n^3-640n^2+533n-148) \qquad\text{and}\qquad a-b=16n-13$$ for some $n \ge 1$, and need to prove that $n=1$ is the only solution. Combining those two equations yields $$a^2+b^2=(8n-7)(256n^2-384n+145),$$ which has certain implications I might be able to leverage…

1 Answers1

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Claim: For $C > 2$, and arbitrary constants $D, E, F$, then the inequality

$$ a^2 + b^ 2 - Cab - Da - Eb - F \leq 0. $$

always has integer solutions.

Proof: We want to find

$$ (a-b)^2 \leq (C - 2 ) ab + Da + Eb + F. $$

Since $ C - 2 > 0$, we can take $ b = a+1, a \rightarrow \infty$.
Then, the RHS is dominated by $a^2$ hence tends to $ + \infty$, so is $ \geq 1$ for some large enough $a$. So, (integer) solutions exist.

Corollary: With the restriction of $ a - b \geq N$, since $\frac{a-b-3}{a-b-1 } \geq \frac{N-3}{N-1}$, in OP's solution, we have

$$a^2 + b^2 - \frac{2(N-1)}{N-3} (b-1)(a+1) \leq 0.$$

This has integer roots, hence we cannot just use this approach to reach a contradiction.

Since this proof approach doesn't work, we cannot make it rigorous (in it's current form).

For the more general case, to show that $ (a-b)^2 < 0$

  • If $ C = 2$, then it greatly depends on the constants (and should be pretty obvious.).
  • If $ |C| < 2 $, then the RHS is eventually negative, so we can restrict to considering "small" cases.

To solve the problem, cross multiply and factor to get

$$ (a-b)^3 - (a+b)^2 - 2 = 0. $$

The problem is then equivalent to showing that $ x^3 - y^2 = 2 $ only has one solution, namely $ (3, 5)$.

See solution here, which uses ideas of $\mathbb{Z} [ \sqrt{-2} ] $.
It suggests that you need much more advanced tools than what you just listed out.

Calvin Lin
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    Thanks for this! Is there anything I can try to do with ($\star$) in order to be able to rescue the basic approach? e.g., if the LHS was $(a-b+1)/(a-b-1)$ [which is greater than $1$], would there be a possible attack? – Kieren MacMillan Jun 14 '21 at 18:56
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    Obviously, that was the “Diophantine equation” I started with. ;) I’m trying to find a more elementary solution than the existing ones. – Kieren MacMillan Jun 14 '21 at 18:57
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    @KierenMacMillan See my edit. I believe that line of attack will not lead to a solution. This requires some "high power" stuff. – Calvin Lin Jun 14 '21 at 18:57
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    There are lots of examples of equations that people once thought required “high power stuff” that ultimately didn’t. Indeed, recently a non-high-power elementary solution for the equation $X^3-Y^2=2$ was found! – Kieren MacMillan Jun 14 '21 at 18:58
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    I don't think it's that likely in this case, esp because the competition math community has been bashing against it. It's a common enough (and innocuous looking) problem that many (myself included years ago) have given it a try. But, like you said, don't like that discourage you. – Calvin Lin Jun 14 '21 at 19:00
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    Question: You say “to show that $(a-b)^2 < 0\dots$” How is that possible? It’s the square of an integer!? – Kieren MacMillan Jun 14 '21 at 23:12
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    @KierenMacMillan That's one way to show that there's a contradiction, hence there are no solutions. Wasn't that what you were going for? – Calvin Lin Jun 15 '21 at 03:17