I have transformed a Diophantine equation into the form $$ \frac{a-b-3}{a-b-1} = \frac{2(b-1)(a+1)}{a^2+b^2}, \tag{$\star$} $$ where $a > b \ge 1$ are integers. I want to prove that $a-b=3$ [thus forcing $b=1$]. It’s easy to show that $1 ≤ a-b ≤ 3$ has only the one desired solution. Now assuming $a-b ≥ 4$, I can say \begin{align} \frac{a-b-3}{a-b-1} \simeq 1, \end{align} and thus \begin{align} 1 &\simeq \frac{2(b-1)(a+1)}{a^2+b^2} \\ a^2+b^2 &\simeq 2(b-1)(a+1) \\ &= 2ab+2(b-a-1) \\ \therefore\quad (a-b)^2 &\simeq 2(b-a-1) ≤ 2(-4-1)=-10. \end{align}
With a strict equality, this would clearly be impossible; QED. The proof might also be valid if I can qualify precisely what is meant by “$\simeq$”, such that the contradiction holds.
QUESTION: How can I make this method of proof rigorous?
EDIT: In case it helps, I have proven that $$ab = 4(256n^3-640n^2+533n-148) \qquad\text{and}\qquad a-b=16n-13$$ for some $n \ge 1$, and need to prove that $n=1$ is the only solution. Combining those two equations yields $$a^2+b^2=(8n-7)(256n^2-384n+145),$$ which has certain implications I might be able to leverage…