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I am trying to write an example computation with multivariable total variation to include in my functional analysis notes using the following definition from Wikipedia:

Let $\Omega$ be an open subset of $\mathbb{R}^n$. Given a function $f$ belonging to $L^1(\Omega)$, the total variation of $f$ in $\Omega$ is defined as $$V(f,\Omega):=\sup \left \{ \int_\Omega f(x) \text{div} \phi(x) dx : \phi \in C_c^1(\Omega, \mathbb{R}^n), \|\phi\|_{L^\infty(\Omega)} \leq 1\right\}$$ $C_c^1(\Omega, \mathbb{R}^n)$ is the set of continuously differentiable vector functions of compact support contained in $\Omega$, $\|\cdot\|_{L^\infty(\Omega)}$ is the essential supremum norm, and $\text{div}$ is the divergence operator.

I would like to use this formula directly and demonstrate the process of taking the supremum.
I understand that if $f$ is $C^1$ on $\overline \Omega$, then the formula for total variation is simplified to the computation of $$ V(f, \Omega) = \int_\Omega |\nabla f(x)| dx, $$ which I am not trying to use here.

So, the problem is computing the total variation of $f: \mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}$, $$ f(x,y) =\frac{xy}{x^2 + y^2} $$ on $\Omega$, where $\Omega$ is the open unit disk in $\mathbb{R}^2$. So, $\Omega = \{x : x \in \mathbb{R}^2 \text{ and }\|x\| < 1\}.$ Here is a visual of this situation:

My Attempted Solution.

$f$ is a classic example of a function discontinuous at 0, so $f \notin C^1(\overline \Omega)$. We first show that $f \in L^1(\Omega)$. Recall $f \in L^1(\Omega) \iff \int_\Omega |f| < \infty$. So, $$\begin{align} \int_{\Omega} |f| &= \iint_D |f(x,y)| dA \\ &= \int_{-1}^1 \int_{-\sqrt{1 - x^2}}^{\sqrt{1 - x^2}} \left \lvert \frac{xy}{x^2 + y^2}\right \rvert dy dx \\ &= 1 < \infty \qquad \text{(C.A.S)}\end{align}.$$ Hence, $f \in L^1(\Omega)$. It remains to compute $$V(f,\Omega):=\sup \left \{ \int_\Omega f(x,y) \text{div} \phi(x,y) dx : \phi \in C_c^1(\Omega, \mathbb{R}^2), \|\phi\|_{L^\infty(\Omega)} \leq 1\right\}$$

Before taking the supremum over $\phi \in C_c^1(\Omega, \mathbb{R}^2)$, we attempt the following simplification, $$\begin{align*} \int_\Omega f(x,y) \text{div} \phi(x,y) dx &= \iint_D f(x,y) \left(\nabla \cdot \left(\phi_x, \phi_y\right)\right) dA \\ &= \iint_D f(x,y) \left(\frac{\partial \phi_x}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial \phi_y}{\partial y}\right) dA \\ &= \iint_D f(x,y) \frac{\partial \phi_x}{\partial x} dA + \iint_D f(x,y) \frac{\partial \phi_y}{\partial y} dA \end{align*} $$

This is where I am stuck in terms of working with $\phi(x,y)$. It boils down to two main questions:

  1. Given what we know about $\phi$, can the above be simplified any further to an expression that does not depend on $\phi$? (So that we don't have to take a supremum) Otherwise,

  2. If we do have to take a supremum over the vector fields $\phi$, how would one go about this? I understand in the single variable case of total variation, one is simply constructing a family of partitions on an interval that enable you to take the supremum over all partitions. But here, how would I go about constructing a family of vector fields that enable me to take the supremum required?

WDR
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  • Something went wrong if you are getting $||f||_{L^1}=0$ for a function that is not a.e. 0. – GuPe Jun 01 '21 at 07:38
  • The answer to the first question is probably negative. As for the second question, take the process of fnding the limit of a function as an analog: If one sticks to find by the definition of limits, the only thing that can be done is to “guess” the limit first and prove by $ε$-$δ$. – Ѕᴀᴀᴅ Jun 01 '21 at 08:14
  • …And mostly the guesswork is actually out of the another way, i.e. the practial way: using basic properties of limits to decompose the limit and then use continuity or Taylor's formula to calculate the limit. – Ѕᴀᴀᴅ Jun 01 '21 at 08:17
  • Another analog is the calculation of Lebesgue integrals, btw. – Ѕᴀᴀᴅ Jun 01 '21 at 08:18
  • @GuachoPerez This has been fixed, thank you. The absolute value bars were accidentally dropped in computation. – WDR Jun 03 '21 at 15:56
  • @Saad Is there any way you could elaborate on your second answer? I.e. by linking to where a computation of multivar total variation has been computed with the supremum definition? I don't really know how to apply your answer to phi, with knowledge of the function being vector valued, its divergence being taken, and the domain of integration. – WDR Jun 03 '21 at 15:59
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    I have no time to write down a complete answer to this very nice question (even if I'd like to do it): my suggestion is to use a $\varepsilon$-family of cutoff functions vanishing in a $\varepsilon$-neighborhood of $0$ and of the boundary $\partial D={x\in\Bbb R^2 : |x|=1}$ and outside $D$ and being 1 inside $D$. – Daniele Tampieri Jun 15 '21 at 18:39

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