1

I have started it like this

If $p>2$, then $p= 2k+1$ ,

$p^2= 4k^2 +4k+1$,

$p^2 -1 = 4k(k+1)$ ,

But I can't get how to make it divisible by $8$.

Areesha
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3 Answers3

2

$p^2-1=(p-1)(p+1)$ is a product of two even numbers. Since these are consecutive even numbers one of them must be divisible by $4$. So the product is divisible by $8$.

Mark
  • 43,582
0

To complete your solution, remember that $k (k + 1)$ is always even.


We can also do a slightly different alternate solution.

Let, $p=4k-m, ~m\in\left\{1,3\right\}$ then we have,

$$\begin{align}p^2-1&=(4k-m)^2-1\\ &=16k^2-8km+(m^2-1)\end{align}$$

Finally, we observe that if $m:=1,3$ then

$$(m^2-1) \equiv 0 ~(\text{mod}~ 8).$$

0

Show that if $\;p>\;2$ is prime, then $\;8\;$ divides $\;p^2-1\;.$

Proof:

If $\;p>2\;$ is prime, then $\;p= 2k+1\;,\;$ where $\;k\in\mathbb{N}\;,$

moreover,

$p^2=4k^2+4k+1\;,$

$p^2-1=4k(k+1)\;.$

Since $\;k(k+1)\;$ is the product of two consecutive positive integer numbers, it is even, hence

$k(k+1)=2h\;,\;$ where $\;h\in\mathbb{N}\;.$

Consequently,

$p^2-1=4k(k+1)=4\cdot2h=8h\;,$

therefore $\;8\;$ divides $\;p^2-1\;.$

Angelo
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