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I've come across two definitions of "spinors" that I'm having a hard time reconciling:

  1. Spinors are the "square root" of a null vector (see here, and also Cartan's book "The Theory of Spinors")
  2. Spinors are minimal ideals in a Clifford algebra (see here, and several other texts like "Clifford Algebras and Spinors" by Lounesto)

I'll give a run-down of these definitions, and then I have some questions at the end.


For definition #1, we take a vector $\vec{v} = x \vec{e_y} + x \vec{e_y} + z \vec{e_z}$ and write it as a linear combination of the sigma matrices to get a $2 \times 2$ matrix. This gives us:

$$\vec{v} \rightarrow V = x\sigma_x + y\sigma_y + z\sigma_z$$ $$ = x \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0\end{bmatrix} + y \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -i \\ i & 0\end{bmatrix} + z \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & -1\end{bmatrix} $$ $$ = \begin{bmatrix} z & x-iy \\ x+iy & -z\end{bmatrix} $$

We can check that $det(V) = - (length(\vec{v}))^2 = - (x^2 + y^2 + z^2) $. If the vector is "null", this quantity is zero. If the determinant of the matrix is zero, we can "factor" it as the multiplication of a column and row of complex numbers, which are the left and right spinors:

$$ V = \begin{bmatrix} z & x-iy \\ x+iy & -z\end{bmatrix} = 2 \begin{bmatrix} \xi_1 \\ \xi_2 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} -\xi_2 & \xi_1 \end{bmatrix} $$

In this representation, when we want to rotate the components of a vector, we use a double-sided transformation $V \rightarrow UVU^\dagger$ with $U \in SU(2)$ being a $2 \times 2$ unitary matrix. So if a null vector is "split" into a (left) column spinor and a (right) row spinor, each spinor gets acted on by a single-sided transformation involving $U$ (for left) or $U^\dagger$ (for right).


Now for Definition #2, we look for minimal ideals of a Clifford Algebra. We can start with the Clifford Algebra $Cl(3,0)$ with the 3 basis vectors $\{ \sigma_x, \sigma_y, \sigma_z \}$ with $(\sigma_i)^2=+1$, and all anti-commuting with each other, $\{\sigma_i, \sigma_j\} = \sigma_i \sigma_j + \sigma_j \sigma_i = 0$ for $i\neq j$.

My understanding is that every (minimal) ideal has a (minimal) projector element $(p^2 = p)$ associated with it. So we can use the projector $p_+ = \frac{1}{2}(1 + \sigma_z) = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} $ to get a left ideal, by left-multiplying the algebra on it, $Cl(3,0)p_+$. The basically gives us the set of $2 \times 2$ matrices with only the left column being non-zero. There is also the projector $p_- = \frac{1}{2}(1 - \sigma_z) = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} $, which gives us another left ideal: the set of $2 \times 2$ matrices with only the right column being non-zero.

So in this interpreation, some examples of spinors as members of a minimal ideal would be:

$$\sigma_x p_+ =\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} $$

$$\sigma_x p_- =\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} $$

In this case, spinors actually add together to give us a vector... for example $(\sigma_x p_+) + (\sigma_x p_-) = \sigma_x$.

We could also act on projectors from the right to get $p_\pm Cl(3,0)$, which would give right ideals (the sets of $2 \times 2$ matrices with either the top row non-zero or bottom row non-zero).


I don't understand the connection between these two definitions. I realize we can write

$$\begin{bmatrix} \xi_1 \\ \xi_2 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} -\xi_2 & \xi_1 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} \xi_1 & 0 \\ \xi_2 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} -\xi_2 & \xi_1 \\ 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} $$

which makes column/row spinors look a bit more like members of left and right ideals, using the projectors I used in definition #2.

  1. Do the two definitions describe the exact set same of objects? Or is one more general?
  2. Is there a procedure for factoring null elements of a clifford algebra, like $\sigma_x + i \sigma_y$ into a product of spinors?
  3. What motivates the notion of a "single-sided multiplication" on spinors in definition #2? There's no mention of "factoring a vector into spinors" anywhere, so I don't understand why we'd be motivated to do single-sided transformations on spinors.
eigenchris
  • 2,182
  • Have you considered posting your question on https://physics.stackexchange.com/ ? I think this might be a question that some of the more mathematically-oriented physicists have considered, as we get a lot of discussion of spinors. You might have seen one I posted recently, https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/636734/do-spinors-form-a-vector-space/636741?noredirect=1#comment1433753_636741 ,which got a lot of attention. – iSeeker May 23 '21 at 19:50
  • @iSeeker Thanks. I may copy+paste my question over there. I find it very frustrating that the physics community can't seem to agree on the definition of a spinor. – eigenchris May 26 '21 at 15:33
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    Crossposted to https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/639161/2451 – Qmechanic May 26 '21 at 15:54

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