I am familiar with the following interpolation property of Brownian Motion (this is essentially a theorem about a Brownian Bridge):
Theorem. Let $W$ be a standard Brownian Motion, and $0<t_1 < t < t_2$. Then the conditional distribution of $W_t$ given $W_{t_1}=x_1$ and $W_{t_2}=x_2$ is $N(\mu, \sigma^2)$ with $\mu = x_1 + \frac{t-t_1}{t_2-t_1}(x_2-x_1)$ and $\sigma^2 = \frac{(t_2-t)(t-t_1)}{t_2-t_1}$.
I have a good intuition for the mean: $\mu$ is the linear interpolation of the values $(t_1, x_1), (t_2, x_2)$ at time $t$.
However, I have no intuition for where this $\sigma^2$ comes from, other than it just pops out of the proof of the theorem. I've noticed $\sigma^2$ can be written as $(t_2-t_1)\alpha(1-\alpha)$ if we write $t$ as a convex combination $t = \alpha t_1+(1-\alpha)t_2$ if that helps.
My question: Is there an intuitive reason for this formula beyond "it just falls out in the proof"?