Question: "When considering a finite-type scheme as a ringed space, is it enough to look at its k-points?"
Answer: If $k$ is a field and $A:=k[x,y]/(y-x)^{n+1}$, $S:=Spec(A)$ it follows
$$S(k):=Hom_{k-alg}(A,k)$$
is the set of maps of $k$-algebras $\phi: A \rightarrow k$. The map $\phi$ is determined by its values $\phi(x)=a, \phi(y)=b$ with $(b-a)^{n+1}=0$, and since $k$ is a field it follows $b=a$. Hence $S$ has the same $k$-rational points as the affine line $\mathbb{A}^1_k:=Spec(k[t])$. There is no isomorphism $S \cong \mathbb{A}^1_k$. Hence $S$ is not determined by $S(k)$
For simplicity, Let $S:=Spec(A)$ be an integral affine scheme of finite type over an algebraically closed field $k$, with $A:=k[x_1,..,x_n]/I$ where $I$ is a prime ideal. You may consider the set $S(k)$ of $k$-rational points of $S$ and embed this set into $k^n$ - in the sense of Hartshorne, Chapter I, it follows $S(k)\subseteq k^n$ is an algebraic variety, and $I(S(k))=I$ by the Nullstellensatz. Hence you recover the ring $A$ from $S(k)$: There is an isomorphism of $k$-algebras
$$R \cong S_k:=k[x_1,..,x_n]/I(S(k))$$
and
$$S\cong Spec(S_k).$$
Hence if $k$ is algebraically closed and $S$ is an affine integral scheme of finite type over $k$ with the above construction you recover $S$ from $S(k)$. There are group schemes that are non-reduced.
Question: "What is the underlying topological space of Z if not Z(k)?"
Answer: Is $A:=\mathbb{R}[x]$ and $S:=Spec(A)$ it follows the underlying topological space of $S$ is the set of prime ideals in $A$. The prime ideals $I$ in $A$ have - by the nullstellensatz - a residue field that is a finite extension of $k:=\mathbb{R}$. Hence they are on the form
$$I:=(x-r)$$
for a real number $r$ or $I:=(p_z(x))$
where $p_z(x):=(x-z)(x-\overline{z}):=x^2-2ax+a^2+b^2$ where $b\in \mathbb{R}^*$. Hence there is no equality between the topological space of $S$ and the set $S(k) \cong k$.
Question: "We will consider a finite-type scheme $Z$, as a ringed space $(Z(k),O_Z)$, where the set $Z(k)$ is equipped with the Zariski topology, this makes sense as $Z$ is of finite type."
Answer: Note: You must make sense of $\mathcal{O}_Z$ - $\mathcal{O}_Z$ is not a sheaf of rings on $Z(k) \subseteq Z$ which is a topological subspace.
A finitely generated $k$-algebra $A$ is a Hilbert-Jacobson ring. In such a ring any prime ideal is the intersection ot the maximal ideals containing it. Let $X:=Spec(A)$ and let $X^m \subseteq X$ be the set of closed points in $X$ with the induced topology. Let $i: X^m \rightarrow X$ be the inclusion map. The map $i$ is continuous and you may take the topological inverse image $\mathcal{O}_{X^m}:=i^{-1}(\mathcal{O}_X)$ to get a ringed topological space $F(A):=(X^m, \mathcal{O}_{X^m})$. This defines in a functorial way a ringed topological space $F(A)$ to any finitely generated $k$-algebra, and for any morphism $\phi: A \rightarrow B$ you get a canonical map of ringed spaces
$$F(\phi): F(B) \rightarrow F(A).$$
With this construction any map of ringed spaces $f: F(B) \rightarrow F(A)$
comes from a map of rings $\phi: A \rightarrow B$ and if $F(\phi)=F(\psi)$ it follows $\phi=\psi$. If $k$ is algebraically closed it follows $X^m=X(k)$ is the space of $k$-rational points of $X$.
More generally if $X$ is of finite type over a field or Dedekind domain $k$, you let $X^m \subseteq X$ be the topological subspace of closed points of $X$ and define $F(X):=(X^m, \mathcal{O}_{X^m})$ similarly. You get to any scheme $X$ of finite type over $k$ a ringed space $F(X)$ which is functorial in $X$.
Any morphism $F(X) \rightarrow F(Y)$ comes from a map of schemes $X \rightarrow Y$ and if $F(\phi)=F(\psi)$ it follows $\phi=\psi$. Hence the ringed space $F(X)$ - which only depends on the closed points of $X$ - captures all properties of the scheme $X$. If $k$ is an algebraically closed field it follows $F(X)=X(k)$ is the space of $k$-rational points of $X$. This construction works over any Dedekind domain. The construction is "straightforward" and you avoid too many abstract "category theoretical" results that may lead to set theoretical problems: Since $X$ is a set it follows $X^m$ is also a set since it is a subset of $X$.
You find an explanation of this construction at the following link:
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/377922/building-algebraic-geometry-without-prime-ideals/378961#378961