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I saw in Tim Olson's Applied Fourier Analysis book this suposed variable change, where he says there is two equivalent ways of writing the fourier transform of a function:

$$ \hat{f}(s) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) e^{ist}dt \tag{1}\label{l1} $$

$$ \hat{f}(s) = \int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) e^{-2\pi ist}dt \tag{2}\label{l2} $$

So he basically says from $\ref{l1} $ to $\ref{l2}$ there is just a simple variable change.

I couldn't see how he achieved that. Maybe something obvious I'm not seeing.

I've tried integration by parts but didn't seem to work well...

Any hints? Is his claim correct?

Thanks in advance

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