My question is simple: If all integers can be represented by $2k$ or $(2k+1)$ where all odd numbers have the form $(2k+1)$ the square of any odd number should be in the form of $(4k^2 + 4k +1) = 4q+1$ then why we have to further represent $q$ (in the last equation) as $2k$ and $2k+1$ to make a conclusion that odd number squared is always is in the form of $8q+1$ ? didn't we already assumed that any odd number is in the form $2k+1$ where $k$ can be any integer. if that isn't the case then why should not we further replace $q$ as $2k$ and $2k+1$ and further and this wont stop. so what is logic here?
The proof makes sense if we start with odd integer as $4k+1$ or $4k+3$ but again how we decide which form should we start with, because both (2k and 4k version) represent the odd numbers.