Let $R$ be an integral domain and $R((x))$ be the ring of formal Laurent series over $R$. (The answer to this question has a good explanation for our ring.)
Is it true that $R$ is a Dedekind domain if and only if $R((x))$ is a Dedekind domain? If not, is there any better necessary and sufficient condition for $R((x))$ to be a Dedekind domain?
Note that in case of $R[x]$, $R[x]$ is a Dedekind domain if and only if $R$ is a field. (We can use a similar proof to this one.) The same goes for $R[[x]]$ with a similar proof, and for $R(x)$ since $R(x)=S^{-1}R[x]$ where $S=\{1,x,x^2,\ldots\}$. Unfortunately, the same thing doesn't happen in $R((x))$, since if $R$ is a field, then $R((x))$ is a field also. (The proof is also available in that earlier question whose link I've put above.) If we weaken the condition of $R$ to be a Euclidean domain, then $R((x))$ will also be a Euclidean domain. (This has been discussed here.) Hence, of course $R$ being a field is not a necessary condition to make $R((x))$ a Dedekind domain. Thus, a question sparks in my head:
What is a necessary and sufficient condition for $R$ to make $R((x))$ a Dedekind domain?
Thank you very much in advance.