I am not convinced or may be don't understand, the way they define convergence and then topology as a consequence of convergence.
$\Omega$ is open subset of $\Bbb R^n.$Define standard topology on $\mathcal C^\infty(\Omega)$ through the following notion of convergence:
Which says, that a sequence $h^k $, $h^k \in \mathcal C^\infty(\Omega)$ converges to $h$ in $\mathcal C^\infty(\Omega)$ if $h^k$ converges to h uniformly with all partial derivatives of any order on any compact subset of $\Omega$.
I am wondering, why did they define convergence in such a way and how does it give birth to a topology?
[In above definition they are talking about the convergence of the sequence of derivatives of a function $h$ i.e. ($h^1, h^2....\to h)$. Now, if we want to discuss the convergence of any random sequence of functions (I mean, a sequence which is not made of derivatives of a particular function), how will we consider that sequence and the convergence....?]
Then writer says:
If $K$ is a compact subset of $\Omega$, we use the standard norm i.e $||\mathcal u||_{C^k(K)}= \sum _{|\alpha|\le k} sup_{x\in K}|D^\alpha\mathcal u(x)|$
Here, I've a basic question - why does he call it a standard norm and why does he consider only this specific norm...??
I will appreciate, if you can give me few minutes out of your precious time. Thank you so much.