Consider $1<p\leq\infty$ and let $H^{1,p}=H^{1,p}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ be an atomic Hardy space, that is $H^{1,p}\subset L^1(\mathbb{R}^n)$, and $f\in H^{1,p}$ if there exists a sequence of $p$-atoms $\{a_i\}_{i\in \mathbb{N}}$ and a sequence $(\lambda_i)\in \ell^1(\mathbb{N})$ such that
$f=\sum_{i=0}^\infty \lambda_i a_i $
Recall a $p$-atom $a$ satifies:
$supp(a)\subset Q$ for some cube $Q\subset\mathbb{R}^n$
$\int_Q a =0$
$||a||_p\leq \frac{1}{|Q|^{1-\frac{1}{p}}}$
The norm on $H^{1,p}$ is given by
$||f||_{H^{1,p}}=\inf\{\sum_i |\lambda_i| : f=\sum_i\lambda_i a_i\}$
I am trying to prove that $H^{1,p}$ is a Banach space. To start with, it is not hard to see that for any $f\in H^{1,p}$:
$||f||_{L^1}\leq||f||_{H^{1,p}}$
One can see this by considering
$\int |f|=\int |\sum_i \lambda_i a_i| \leq \sum_i |\lambda_i|\int|a_i|\leq \sum_i|\lambda_i|$
Where we have used dominated convergence and the property that for any $p$-atom $||a||_1 \leq 1$.
Using this, if we have $f_n$ a Cauchy sequence in $H^{1,p}$ then we have a Cauchy sequence in $L^1$, so it converges to some $f\in L^1$. I am now stuck on how to prove that $f\in H^{1,p}$.
I have attempted to construct a representation of $f$ in terms of $\lambda_i$ and $a_i$ where $\lambda_i=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \lambda_i^n$ for representatives $f_n=\sum_i \lambda_i^n a_i^n$ (similarly for $a_i$). But this hasn't succeeded.
Thanks for any help