https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Skolem%27s_paradox
In reading about Skolem's paradox on wikipedia, I encountered the claim that every consistent countable axiomatisation of set theory in first order logic has a countable model. That got me thinking that it's strange that set theory could have more than one axiomatisation at all, countably modeled or otherwise. The only set theory I typically hear about is ZFC, and then I recalled NBG set theory, but that is an extension of ZFC, not a separate axiomatisation. Or is NBG considered a separate axiomatisation?
Moreover, I had thought that set theory required second order logic, since it involves quantifying over both sets and relations between sets. How could it have an axiomatisation in first-order logic at all, let alone more than one?
Finally, if indeed set theory (and n.b. that they didn't clarify which set theory, so I would take it to mean ZFC) has more than one axiomatisation in first-order logic, does it have finitely many, denumerably many, or perhaps even non-denumerably many?
Thank you for any advice.