The following is an example I saw in a book on Algebraic Geometry.
Example: Let $A$ be a ring and consider $A[t]$, with the grading given by $\deg t = 1$ and $\deg a = 0$ for $a \in A$. Then the structure map gives an isomorphism $\operatorname{Proj} A[t] \cong \operatorname{Spec} A$
By structure map, the authors mean a morphism of schemes $\varphi : \operatorname{Proj} A[t] \to \operatorname{Spec} A$. I am not sure exactly what this morphism would be however, I assume that we start off with the standard embedding $A \hookrightarrow A[t]$ and then apply the functor $\operatorname{Spec}$ to get a map $\operatorname{Spec} A[t] \to \operatorname{Spec} A$ and then pre-compose that with the inclusion $i : \operatorname{Proj} A[t] \to \operatorname{Spec} A[t]$ to get the desired morphism $\varphi$.
Now firstly, the $\operatorname{Proj}$ construction only works for graded rings. So $A[t]$ should be of the form $A[t] = \bigoplus_{d \geq 0} A_d$. The authors say above "the grading given by $\deg t = 1$ and $\deg a = 0$ for $a \in A$", and I assume that this means that $A_0$ is the image of the standard inclusion of $A$ in $A[t]$, and that $A_1 = (t)$, the ideal generated by $t$ so that "essentially" $A[t] = A_0 \oplus A_1 = A \oplus (t)$. Is this the correct interpretation?
Now onto the claim that the $\varphi$ yields an isomorphism. I don't even see why $\varphi$ is a bijection, let alone a homeomorphism. If I label the embedding $A \hookrightarrow A[t]$ as $j$, then $\varphi$ is given by $\varphi(\mathfrak{p}) = j^{-1}(\mathfrak{p})$ for any $\mathfrak{p} \in \operatorname{Proj} A[t]$ and to say that $\varphi$ is bijective would mean that every prime ideal $\mathfrak{q}$ of $A$ is of the form $\mathfrak{q} = j^{-1}(\mathfrak{p})$ for some unique $\mathfrak{p} \in \operatorname{Proj} A[t]$ and for starters I do not see why this would be the case.
Furthermore I would need to show that the morphism of sheaves $\varphi^\sharp : \mathcal{O}_{\operatorname{Spec} A} \to \varphi_* \mathcal{O}_{\operatorname{Proj} A[t]}$ is also isomorphic and the way one usually does is by looking at basic open sets on $\operatorname{Spec} A$. In more words - if I wanted to see what $\varphi^\sharp$ would be in this case, then if I chose an $f \in A$ and considered the open subset $D(f) \subseteq \operatorname{Spec} A$ then $\Gamma(D(f), \mathcal{O}_{\operatorname{Spec} A}) \cong A_f$. But $$\Gamma(D(f), \varphi_*\mathcal{O}_{\operatorname{Proj} A[t]}) = \Gamma(\varphi^{-1}(D(f)), \mathcal{O}_{\operatorname{Proj} A[t]})$$ and this may not have such a nice form as far as I know, since $\varphi^{-1}(D(f))$ might not be a basic open subset of $\operatorname{Proj} A[t]$. So I cannot express $\varphi^\sharp_{D(f)} : \Gamma(D(f), \mathcal{O}_{\operatorname{Spec} A}) \to \Gamma(\varphi^{-1}(D(f)), \mathcal{O}_{\operatorname{Proj} A[t]})$ in any nice way to allow me to check that $\varphi^\sharp$ would indeed be an isomorphism.