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how to prove $a+b< (a^{\alpha}+b^{\alpha})^{\frac{1}{\alpha}}$ when $0<\alpha<1$.(Im not suure if is for every a,b) I am really dont try anything, but i think that maybe is using integration in some region, i will appreciate if you give me one hint, thank you so much.

1 Answers1

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You can prove it directly just using strict monotonicity of an appropriate function.

First note that you are dealing with an inequality among real numbers and there expressions like $a^{\alpha}, b^{\alpha}$ with real $0<\alpha<1$ are defined for $a,b\geq 0$.

Your inequality is wrong if $a=0$ or $b=0$. So, you may want to prove it for $a,b>0$.

Without loss of generality we can assume that $0<b\leq a$ and set $x=\frac ba$: $$a+b < \left(a^{\alpha}+ b^{\alpha}\right)^{\frac 1{\alpha}}\Leftrightarrow (a+b)^{\alpha} < a^{\alpha}+ b^{\alpha}$$ $$\stackrel{x=\frac ba}{\Leftrightarrow}(1+x)^{\alpha} < 1+x^{\alpha} \text{ for } 0<x\leq 1$$

The function $f(x) = 1+x^{\alpha} - (1+x)^{\alpha}$ is continuous on $[0,1]$ and differentiable on $(0,1)$. Furthermore you have $f(0) = 0$. So, it is enough to show that $f'(x) >0$ on $(0,1)$:

$$f'(x) = \alpha \left(\underbrace{\frac 1{x^{1-\alpha}}}_{>1 \text{ on } (0,1)} - \underbrace{\frac 1{(1+x)^{1-\alpha}}}_{<1 \text{ on } (0,1)}\right) > 0$$

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