For $p> 1$ and $a_1,a_2,...,a_n$ positive, show that \begin{equation} \sum_{k = 1}^n \left(\frac{a_1+a_2+\cdots a_k}{k}\right)^p < \left(\frac{p}{p-1}\right)^p \sum_{k =1}^n a_k^p \end{equation}
I was hoping to use the convexity of $f(x) = x^p$, or some induction argument. But I can't seem to figure it out. Some hints would be greatly appreciated!