I've been given a matrix of the form
$$\begin{pmatrix} -1 & 1/a_{21} & \cdots & 1/a_{n1} \\ a_{21} & -1 &\cdots & 1/a_{n2} \\ \vdots & \vdots & \ddots & \vdots \\ a_{n1} & a_{n2} & \cdots & -1 \end{pmatrix}$$ which satisfies $$ \sum_{j=1}^n a_{ij} = 0,\space\space\forall\space i $$ and I've been asked to prove whether it can have complex eigenvalues when all its coefficients are real. I've been trying to throw properties of matrices and eigevalues to it for a week but I haven't gotten anything.
For $n = 2$, I know its eigenvalues are $0$ and $-2$, its determinant is $0$ and its trace is $-2$. For $n = 3$ it also has a $0$ determinant, but this time only after applying the extra property that the sum of all the coefficients of any column must be $0$. I haven't been able to prove whether the determinant should be $0$ for any natural $n$ or not.
I don't know if there's an easy way to prove this, maybe it's possible to prove they don't even without that extra constraint. Any hint or idea I could try would be very welcome!