I have the following exercise:
If $f:X\rightarrow Y$ is a function and $A\subset X$ is a set. It is true that $f\cap(A\times Y)$ is a function?
At first I thought this was the restriction function, but I checked the definition of the restriction of a function and it does not match this one. I thought that since f is a function, and $f \subset X\times Y$ then that was enough to see that $f\cap(A\times Y)$ is a function, but I think it is not enough, could you please help me. Thank you.