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In a group we have $abc\cdots z = z\cdots cba$ then is it an abelian group? It's proven for $3$ members here:

In a group we have $abc=cba$. Is it abelian?

And I do not find a way to try an inductive proof (If it's right for three members then it's right for n members).

Jean-Claude Arbaut
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csounder5
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1 Answers1

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Following the question in the link I'll try to show the case where:

$abcd=dcba$ for all $a,b,c,d\not=1$ in $G$. It is $a'=a^{-1}$ and

\begin{align}abcd=dcba \iff \\ abcda'b'c'd'=1 \\ \iff abcd(cba)'d'=1 , \\ \ \text{ for } d=cba \\ abc(cba)'=1 \iff \\ abca'b'c'=1 \iff \\ abc(ba)'c'=1, \\ \text{ for } c=ba \\ aba'b'=1 \checkmark \end{align}

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