The problem goes like this: "Assume $A$$1$ $\equiv$ $A$$2$ . Show that for any formula $C$-containing $A$$1$ as a part , if we replace one of more occurences of the part $A$$1$ by $A$$2$ , then the resulting formula is logically equivalent to $C$."
Now, at first glance ,this theorem seems obvious to me , but I still have to prove it. My choice is to use the law of induction and the following identities (which can be derived from $A$$1$ $\equiv$ $A$$2$).
$1$. $A$$1$ $\equiv$ $A$$2$
$2$. ($\lnot$$A$$1$) $\equiv$ ($\lnot$$A$$2$)
$3$. ($A$$1$) $d$ $B$ $\equiv$ ($A$$2$) $d$ $B$
$4$. $B$ $d$ ($A$$1$) $\equiv$ $B$ $d$ ($A$$1$)
(Here $d\in\{\land,\lor,\Leftarrow,\Rightarrow,\Leftrightarrow\}$)
Now, I am used to doing induction with only one operation (like $+$), but now there is more then one operation. Also, I have to to consider commuting (rule $3$ and $4$). I tried to use summation signs but i does't seem to get simpler (is summation even usable in proportional logic?). I know the basics of induction by heart, but I don't know how to extend them to so many cases. Can someone show me how?