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Recently, I came across Huygens inequality from here which stated that:

If $a_{1}, a_{2}\ldots a_{n}$ are $real\ numbers$, then $$ \left(1 + a_{1}\right)\left(1 + a_{2}\right)\ldots\left(1 + a_{n}\right) \geq \left[\vphantom{\large A^{A}}1 + \left(a_{1}\,a_{2}\,a_{3}\ldots a_{n}\right)^{1/n}\,\right]^{n} $$ I was trying to prove this inequality using mathematical induction. But I can't find a relation between $n$ and $n + 1$. I also couldn't find any proof for the same on internet. How can we go about proving this inequality using simple or strong induction or am I going in wrong direction altogether $?$.

Felix Marin
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  • So, I am on wrong track or the question is wrong or something? Please anyone provide some feedback – Combat Miners Sep 30 '20 at 09:31
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    What if n is even and for all $i \in [n]$ we have $a_i = -1$. Thus inequality can't hold for all real numbers –  Oct 02 '20 at 03:44

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