This is the first time I have come across the following definition for the infinite Cartesian product. I somewhat understand it, however, below I have pointed out where I am getting confused.
Definition for the infinite Cartesian product:
$$\prod_{i \in \mathbb{N}}\mathbb{X}_i = \{f: \operatorname{dom}(f) = \mathbb{N} \wedge \forall i, f(i) \in \mathbb{X}_i\}.$$
Here is where I am getting confused. Define the following:
$$\mathbb{R}^2 = \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} = \{(x,y): x \in \mathbb{R} \wedge y \in \mathbb{R}\} \quad (i)$$
$$\mathbb{R}^2 = \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} = \prod_{i=1}^2\mathbb{R}_i = \{f: \operatorname{dom}(f) = \{1,2\} \wedge f(1) \in \mathbb{R}, f(2) \in \mathbb{R}\} \quad (ii)$$
Here is where I am getting confused. Lets say you want to write "express" the point where $x = 5$ and $y = \pi$, then using $(i)$ you would simply write $(5,\pi)$. How would you express the same for $(ii)$? In other words, I am just not sure how you would represent the same point using $(ii)$. I know that a function is, itself, a set.