Mathematica gives away the interesting sum: $$\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac1{2k+1}{2k \choose k}^{-1}=\frac{2\pi}{3\sqrt{3}}$$ The question is: How to prove it by hand?
Remark. This question is self-answered (whence the OP provided an effort). See the answer below.
$$\frac{\arcsin(x)}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(2x)^{2n+1}}{(2n+1){2n\choose n}}$$
Divide both sides by $2x$ then $\int_0^{1/2}$ we get
which is well-known
– Ali Olaikhan Aug 25 '20 at 06:18