1

Let $A$ be a non-empty set, $+$ is an associative binary operation and for each $a$ in $A$, the two maps

  1. $A \to A$ that sends $x$ to $x+a$
  2. $A \to A$ that sends $x$ to $a+x$

are bijective maps. The question is determine whether $(A, +)$ a group or not?

My understanding that $A$ is a group if it has an identity and every element has inverse, but I am not quite sure how use these bijective maps to prove/disprove that $A$ is a group.

J.-E. Pin
  • 42,871
Andrew
  • 135
  • 1
  • please see https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/5020/mathjax-basic-tutorial-and-quick-reference 2. I wouldn't choose $+$ as the name of an operation that may not be commutative.
  • – Angina Seng Aug 19 '20 at 01:59
  • 2
    Is $A$ finite ? – markvs Aug 19 '20 at 02:02
  • This $n$-Category Cafe post proves what you're after, but also has an interesting discussion about the nature of the "empty group". – user1729 Aug 19 '20 at 12:56