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I tried solving by using $\log$ and got $\log(a)/n = \log (1)$ which after applying limit (of $n \to \infty$) gives $0= \log(1)$. Is this right?

David G. Stork
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  • Certainly $\log1$ is $0$. – Angina Seng Aug 15 '20 at 20:08
  • Also: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/2506582/42969 – Martin R Aug 15 '20 at 20:08
  • @RuRu Ly Hii!! Welcome to MSE . Kindly write statement of question in question also ( apart from title) . Also you should add context of problem , that is source(if textbook) . Also see on site tour , How to ask a good question . –  Aug 15 '20 at 20:20

1 Answers1

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Write , $a^{\frac{1}{n}} = e^{\ln(a^{\frac{1}{n}} )}= e^{\frac{1}{n} \cdot \ln(a) } $

Now , just apply the limit.

A learner
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