So, I was reviewing the first course in Linear Algebra which I took and got curious about the reason behind defining the inverse of a matrix in the following way (from Wikipedia):
In linear algebra, an $n$-by-$n$ square matrix $A$ is called invertible (also nonsingular or nondegenerate) if there exists an $n$-by-$n$ square matrix $B$ such that $$ AB=BA=I $$
Now, I had an exercise to prove that if $AB=I$, then $BA=I$. Then, what is the reason to put both the equalities in the definition? Is that somewhat traditional or is it because of some specific reason which I'm not aware of?
I'd be happy if someone could help me out.
Thanks in advance!