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Let consider

$$ \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1 +cn^2}{(2n+3 + 2 \sin n)^2} $$

If I factor the $n^2$ out of denominator

$$ \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{ 1 + cn^2}{ n^2 \left( 2 + 3n^{-1} + 2 \frac{ \sin n}{n} \right)^2}$$

and take limit directly, I get the answer as

$$ \frac{c}{4}$$

However, if I apply l'hopital rule, I get

$$ \lim_{ n \to \infty} \frac{ 2cn}{2 (2n + 3 + 2 \sin n)( 2 + 2 \cos n)} $$

However this new limit gives a different value than original according to wolfram and neither I am able to compute it by hand. What am I missing?

Some people say of limit existing and not existing, but then suppose

$$ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{1}{x} = \infty$$

Does this limit exist? How do you define a limit to be existing as in what is sufficent condition for it?

user
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  • As far as I know , I've been taught that I can apply for 0/0 and infinity/ infinity forms – Clemens Bartholdy Jul 23 '20 at 22:08
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    @DDD4C4U One can apply LHR to quotients on the form $\frac{\text{ANYTHING}}{\infty}$ – Mark Viola Jul 23 '20 at 22:09
  • wait so the numerator need not be infinity?? – Clemens Bartholdy Jul 23 '20 at 22:15
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    @DDD4C4U Since the limit of the resulting (i.e. differentiated) denominator fails to exist, LHR is simply inapplicable here. – Mark Viola Jul 23 '20 at 22:18
  • what does it mean to fail to exist? the 'n' term beats the growth of sine term so I think it's not totally undefined – Clemens Bartholdy Jul 23 '20 at 22:19
  • Look at the term $2+2\cos(n)$. What is its limit? – Mark Viola Jul 23 '20 at 22:19
  • the problem that I Have precisely is that does limit being infinity mean that is defined? because I think 1/x limit as x go to 0 is not. And in that case we can take l'hopital but not here – Clemens Bartholdy Jul 23 '20 at 22:25
  • so what kind of undefined limit do we need for l'hopital – Clemens Bartholdy Jul 23 '20 at 22:25
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    This is the same thing (conceptually) with $\frac{n}{n+\sin n}$. –  Jul 23 '20 at 22:27
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    Lhopital is not applicable here since the limit of the expeossion obtained after its fist application does not exist. L’Hospital says that under 0/0 or $\infty/\infty$ conditions, if the ratio of derivative exists then the limit of the original ratio exists. It DOES NOT say that if the limit of the ratios under the above indeterminacies exists, then the ratio of derivatives exists. – Mittens Jul 23 '20 at 22:47
  • This old answer of mine may help explain things: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1710786/why-does-lhopitals-rule-fail-in-calculating-lim-x-to-infty-fracxx-s/1710798#1710798 – Barry Cipra Jul 23 '20 at 23:37
  • @DDD4C4U you say the wrong here, $ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{1}{x} = \infty$, it doesn't exist infinitely also! – A learner Jul 24 '20 at 09:18
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    @OliverDiaz To be more precise, LHR rule is applicable to a quotient of the form $\frac{\text{ANYTHING}}{\infty}$. The limit of the numerator need not even exist provided the limit of the denominator is $\infty$. – Mark Viola Jul 24 '20 at 14:08

3 Answers3

5

The rule of L'Hospital states that the limit of $\dfrac fg$ equals that of $\dfrac{f'}{g'}$ if the latter exists. You precisely found a case where this does not hold.

We can simplify the example as

$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{n+\sin n}n=1$$

but

$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1+\cos n}1$$ is undefined.

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    This is not what L'Hôpital's rule says. There are lots of cases where the limit of $f^{\prime}/g^{\prime}$ exists and is not equal to the limit of $f/g$. The rule only applies to specific indeterminate forms (and the example given is not one of these forms). I know that you know this, but your answer is misleading by excluding it. – xxxxxxxxx Jul 24 '20 at 05:19
  • @MorganRodgers: this is clearly a $\dfrac{\infty}{\infty}$ form, the limit of which is $\dfrac c4$. What do I "exclude" ? –  Jul 24 '20 at 06:18
  • @MorganRodgers I'm interested in the answer you would like to give for this – Clemens Bartholdy Jul 24 '20 at 08:55
  • what does it mean for a limit to exist? is a limit like infinity/ infinity said to exist? I don't think I fully understood l'hopitals as I"ve never seen the proof for lims at inf – Clemens Bartholdy Jul 24 '20 at 08:56
  • @DDD4C4U: it is the purpose of limits calculus to determine if a limit exists or not. –  Jul 24 '20 at 11:13
  • @DDD4C4U If this helps, the reason that the limit in this answer does not exist is that cosine oscillates forever. You can't plug in a really big value for $n$ and see the function approaching anything, because it doesn't approach anything - it just goes up and down. That's why we say the limit does not exist in this case. – Polygon Jul 24 '20 at 13:48
  • so hwo does oscillating limits relate to limit existing or not? – Clemens Bartholdy Jul 25 '20 at 09:26
  • @DDD4C4U: what is $\lim_{x\to \infty}\cos x$ in your opinion ? –  Jul 25 '20 at 09:28
  • -1 or 0 or 1 , the average would be 0. Jokes aside, I get that we cant say oscillating limits, but then what does it mean for limit to exist? – Clemens Bartholdy Jul 25 '20 at 09:30
  • @DDD4C4U: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Limit_(mathematics) –  Jul 25 '20 at 10:06
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    I think the important question that hasn't been answered above (and which I personally also don't know the answer to) is whether L'Hôpital's rule applies when the limit of the quotient of the derivatives is infinite (i.e. the rule only applies when the limit of the quotient of the derivatives exists, but does "the limit existing" include or exclude infinite limits? Irrelevant for this question, as in this case the limit does not exist at all, but I'm still curious about the case of an infinite limit). – Tom Oct 03 '22 at 18:41
2

The case is inapplicable because of one of the conditions to use L’Hopital rule fails, that is,

$$g’(x) \ne 0, \forall x \text{ around } c$$

In this case, the resulting denominator will be zero if $2 + 2\cos{x}=0$, which, in fact, has infinitely many real roots.

Therefore, the denominator can be zero around “infinity”, hence the case failed.

For further clarification, visit https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/L'H%C3%B4pital's_rule, the 3rd counterexample is what I’m demonstrating.

Hope this helps!

  • We can also eliminate this case excluding points such that $\cos x=0$ but still the rule doesn't work . – user Oct 04 '24 at 20:28
0

As noticed L’Hopital's rule doesn't work in this case but we can say something more on that.


Let consider at first the case $n\in \mathbb R$.

As already discussed here, one way to conlude that L’Hopital's rule doesn't work is by the hypotesis adopted in the theorem which states that for the denominator $g'(x)\neq 0$ in the interval.

But what if we exclude such values from the domain? that is, if we assume

$$2+2\cos n \neq 0 \iff n\neq \pi +2k\pi$$

Well, in this case also L’Hopital's rule doesn't work too but for another reason that is that the new limit

$$\lim_{ n \to \infty} \frac{ 2cn}{2 (2n + 3 + 2 \sin n)( 2 + 2 \cos n)}=\lim_{ n \to \infty} \frac{ c}{ \left(2 + \frac3n + 2 \frac{\sin n}n\right)}\frac1{ 2 + 2 \cos n}$$

doesn't exist, indeed

$$\frac{ c}{ \left(2 + \frac3n + 2 \frac{\sin n}n\right)}\to \frac c 4$$

but

$$\lim_{ n \to \infty}\frac1{ 2 + 2 \cos n}$$

is problematic indeed

  • for $x_n=2kn \to \infty \implies \frac1{ 2 + 2 \cos n}\to \frac14$
  • for $x_n=\frac \pi 2+2kn \to \infty \implies \frac1{ 2 + 2 \cos n}\to \frac12$

such that the new limit doesn't exist and then we again can't conclude nothing by l'Hospital rule.


When $n\in \mathbb Z$ again L’Hopital's rule doesn't work because the limit for $\cos n$ doesn't exists, as discusse here


The first way you have used is the most clear and effective, but if we want apply l'Hospital rule, a way is passing by squeeze theorem

$$ \frac{1 +cn^2}{(2n+5)^2}\le \frac{1 +cn^2}{(2n+3 + 2 \sin n)^2}\le \frac{1 +cn^2}{(2n+1)^2}$$

and then applying the rule for the bounds I don't suggest this way, but in this case the application is formally fine).


For the last question we usually say

  • limit exists (finite): $\lim_{x\to x_0} f(x) = L\in \mathbb R$
  • limit exists (not finite, diverging cases): $\lim_{x\to x_0} f(x) = \infty$ or $\lim_{x\to x_0} f(x) = -\infty$
  • limit doesn't exist, otherwise (e.g. $\sin x$, $(-1)^n$, $\cos n$, etc.)

The limit in the last example doesn't exist since $\lim_{x \to 0^+} \frac{1}{x} = \infty$ but $\lim_{x \to 0^-} \frac{1}{x} = -\infty$.

user
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