I have the following two multivariable function limits:
$\displaystyle \lim _{(x, y) \rightarrow(0,0)} \frac{x y^{3}}{x^{2}+y^{6}}:f_{1}$ and $\displaystyle \lim _{(x, y) \rightarrow(0,0)} \frac{x^{2} y^{2}}{x^{2}+y^{6}}: f_{2}$
I have concluded, by using traditional methods (Approaching from different lines, and the precise definition of limit), that the first limit is DNE, while the second one is $0$
However, I was trying to use polar coordinates to prove. They have very similar expressions.
From this post, I understand that the function has to be bounded in order for the limit to be 0.
$\displaystyle f_1\rightarrow \lim _{(x, y)\rightarrow(0,0)} \frac{r \cos \theta \cdot r^{3} \sin ^{3} \theta}{r^{2} \cos ^{2} \theta+r^{6} \sin^{6} \theta} =\frac{r^{2} \sin ^{3} \theta \cos \theta}{\cos ^{2} \theta+r^{4} \sin^{6} \theta}$
$\displaystyle f_2\rightarrow \lim _{(x, y)\rightarrow(0,0)} \frac{r^{2} \cos ^{2} \theta \cdot r^{2} \sin ^{2} \theta}{r^{2} \cos ^{2} \theta+r^{6} \sin^{6} \theta} = \frac{r^{2} \sin ^{2} \theta \cos^{2} \theta}{\cos ^{2} \theta+r^{4} \sin^{6} \theta} $
However, to me, by having "$\displaystyle r^{4} \sin^{6} \theta$" in the denominator both functions are not bounded. I don't know how two different numerators in this case change the situation?
Is there any good reason to explain this?