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Prove by elementary means that $$n\#\geq 3n$$ for $n\geq 5$, where $n\#$ is the primorial function.

update: I have found an elementary proof, see my answer to my question. The remainder of this post is the original question:

From the replies this is no longer a conjecture but is a fact!

So far the only derivations given are based on Bertrand's postulate and that does work.

The idea emerged from another post where I now realise that the argument I gave leading to this question was a flawed argument, so I am removing that reference. In fact that reference now refers here instead!:

https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3748110/804099

Instead the correct argument is this:

I want to show that $n\#-2,n\#-3,...,n\#-n$ are consecutive composite numbers in descending order, where $n>=5$. Let $p$ be a prime factor of $m$, where $2<=m<=n$. Then $p$ is a common factor of $n\#$ and $m$, and $n\#-m=p*((n\#-m)/p)$. For this to be composite we need the second factor greater than 1, ie $(n\#-m)/p>1$, ie $n\#-m>p$ ie $n\#>m+p$. Now if $n\#>=3n$ is true, then $n\#>=3n>n+n>=m+p$ and we have the result.

The remaining question is whether someone can give an elementary direct proof which doesnt refer to Bertrand's postulate.

The primorial of $n$ is the product of all primes $p\leq n$, e.g. $6\#=2\cdot 3\cdot 5=30$.

The best I have proven directly is that if $n\geq5$ is a product of distinct primes, then it is true.

Because if $n$ is even then $n-1$ is odd and coprime to $n$: let $p$ be any prime factor of $n-1$.

whereas if $n$ is odd then $n-2$ is odd and coprime to $n$: let $p$ be any prime factor of $n-2$,

In both cases, $p$ is odd and thus $p\geq3$ and also $p$ is coprime to $n$.

$n\#\geq pn$ because the RHS divides the LHS as its a product of distinct primes, as $n$ is a product of distinct primes and $p$ is not a factor of $n$. Thus $n\#\geq pn\geq3n$.

But I am unable to progress on more general $n\geq5$ without referencing Bertrand's postulate which says that for any integer $N>3$ there is a prime $N<p<2N-2$ . As the primorial function whizzes upwards with enormous speed, the result seems very likely, but has eluded me so far! It took some work to establish the result for $n\geq5$ a product of distinct primes.

UPDATE: I have proved it without reference to Bertrand's postulate, see my answer to my question.

Establishing the result for other categories of $n\geq5$ will also be useful.

  • To prove the consecutive composites , you do not need the inequality. For the inequality, is Bertrand's postulate easy enough or do you want an even more elementary proof ? – Peter Jul 07 '20 at 15:38
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    Do you accept Bertrand's Postulate as elementary? It has an elementary proof, and it is widely known. – Batominovski Jul 07 '20 at 17:26
  • @Peter

    but I need the inequality because $n#-m=(n#/m-1)m$ could have first factor 1, eg for $n=4$, $n#-n=6-4=2$ is prime and also $n#-3=4#-3=6-3=3$ also prime. As regards Bertrand's postulate, that would do it because it says for any $n$ there is a prime $n<p<2n-2$. if $n=2t$ is even we have $t<p<2t-2=n-2$, so if $n>=5$, we have $t>=3$ and $n#>=p#>=23p=6p>6t=3n$

    if instead $n=2t+1$ is odd, we have $t<p<2t-2=n-3$. so if $n>=7$ we have $t>=3$ and $n#>=p#>=23p=6p>=6t+6=3n+3>3n$.

    for odd $n=5$ we verify directly, $n#=30>=15=35=3n$.

    – Commenter Jul 07 '20 at 17:56
  • You could have much better lower bounds for $n$# that could still be proven. What exactly do you want to prove ? Is it something with prime gaps near a primorial ? – Peter Jul 07 '20 at 17:59
  • @Peter I just feel my inequality is vastly weaker than Bertrand's postulate, so feel there must be a more lightweight proof. – Commenter Jul 07 '20 at 18:00
  • Despite of the weakness of the ineqaulity, I doubt that there is a proof only based on tools like induction or modulo arithmetic. – Peter Jul 07 '20 at 18:04
  • @Peter but I managed to prove it above for products of distinct primes. So why not other classes of numbers even if not all? Its to show prime gaps BELOW the primorial. – Commenter Jul 07 '20 at 18:07
  • @Commenter As laid out in my answer below, it turns out that your inequality is in essence identical to Bertrand's Postulate, not 'vastly weaker.' – Keith Backman Jul 07 '20 at 18:15
  • @KeithBackman The proof shows that the postulate is sufficient, but where is the indication that we actually need it ? – Peter Jul 07 '20 at 18:21
  • @Commenter The problem is that , if $n$ is not squarefree, $n$# is not necessarily divisible by $n$, so we must find a bound for a prime gap, although it only needs to be very weak. – Peter Jul 07 '20 at 18:24
  • @Peter my argument leading to the inequality is flawed nonsense! How do you prove that $n#-2, n#-3,....,n#-n$ are composite for $n>=5$? or is that not true eg its not true for $n=4$? if you can derive that, it answers the original problem I was looking at which now is unrelated to the question here. – Commenter Jul 07 '20 at 19:50
  • @Peter I have modified the original question to give what I think is a correct proof that from $n#>=3*n$ we have that for $n>=5$, $n#-m$ is composite for $2<=m<=n$. The original proof I gave was incorrect. This is then an enhancement of result that $n#+m$ is composite for those m. – Commenter Jul 08 '20 at 19:38
  • @Peter I have found a trivial solution of the inequality, and also a trivial solution for finding arbitrarily good lower bounds, see my answer to my post – Commenter Jul 09 '20 at 02:34
  • This refutes the claim that Bertrand's postulate is equivalent to the given claim because it is much harder to prove Bertrand's postulate. And it is not surprising that the bound can be improven because $n$# grows fast. I admit however that I did not expect that it is enough that there are infinite many primes. By the way : The gap need not exceed the smallest prime $p$ larger than $n$ , since $n$#-p can be prime. Hence, the bound you found is sharp. – Peter Jul 09 '20 at 06:26
  • where Euclid says 235711131719+1 must have all prime factors q>19, I am refining this by saying eg 37131719-2^25^3*11 has all prime factors q>19 PROVIDED the number is 2 or higher. More generally provided the number is not in the set {-1,0,1}, ie negative numbers are ok, just 3 numbers are banned. – Commenter Jul 09 '20 at 16:35
  • just realised it cant be 0. so in general eg 2^93^517-1113^423^9 will be nonzero, possibly negative and will be a product of primes outside the set {2,3,17,11,13,23}. But it could be the null product, ie 1 or -1. Where eg -19 is regarded as a generalised prime. – Commenter Jul 09 '20 at 17:00

2 Answers2

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EUREKA!

I have found an elementary solution to the problem that for $n>=5$ we have $n\#>=3*n$

the proof is as follows,

for $n>=5$ we have $n\#>=5\#=2*3*5=30$, so $N=n\#/3-3>=7$, now $n\#/3$ is an integer because $3$ is a factor of $n\#$, so $N=n\#/3-3$ is an integer 7 or higher, thus it has a prime factor $q$. But $q$ is coprime to $n\#$ because if $p$ is a prime $p<=n$ and its not 3, then it divides $n\#/3$ and thus cannot divide $N$, and if $p$ is 3, it cannot divide $n\#/3-3$. Thus $n\#/3>n\#/3-3>q>n$, and so $n\#>3*n$ QED!

I can then generalise the theorem to arbitrarily good lower bounds, as follows:

If $M$ is a product of distinct primes $p$, where the largest one is $P$, then if $n>=P$ AND $n\#>M^2+M$, then $M$ divides $n\#$, so $n\#/M$ is an integer and $n\#/M>M+1$ thus $T=n\#/M-M>=2$ so there exists a prime factor $q$ of $T$ but we must have $q>n$, because if $q<=n$ then either $q$ is a factor of $M$, but then its not a factor of $T$ a contradiction; or its a factor of $n\#/M$ but then also its not a factor of $T$ another contradiction. Thus $n\#/M >n\#/M-M>=q>n$, and so $n\#>M*n$ in fact $n\#/M-M>=n+1$ so $n\#>=M*n+M+M^2$

We thus have a theorem: if $M$ is a product of distinct primes $p$ where the largest is $P$, and if $n>=P$ AND $n\#>=M^2+M+1$ THEN $n\#>=M*n+M+M^2$, a lower bound for $n\#$

(where all the inequalities have been paraphrased as $>=$ rather than $>$ to avoid misquoting. What I am really saying is $P$ divides $M$ divides $P\#$. For $M=1$ we dont need the condition $n>=P$)

as an application, let $M=2*3*5=30$, here $P=5$, so if $n>=5$ and $n\#>=30^2+30+1=931$ then $n\#>=30*n+930$. To have $n\#>=931$ we need just that $n>=11$, so the example theorem is:

if $n>=11$ then $n\#>=30*n+930$

for the case of $n=11$ it says $n\#=2310>=1260$.

for the original case of $M=3$, here $P=3$, so if $n>=3$ AND $n\#>=3*3+3+1=13$, then $n\#>=3*n+12$, but $n\#>=13$ means $n>=5$ and we get the original inequality, that for all $n>=5$, we have $n\#>=3*n+12$

I can also generalise the inequality thus: let $t$ be a product of distinct primes, with biggest one $P$, and let $T$ be the same product of primes but with some or none of the exponents boosted. eg if $t=2*5*11*13$ then an example of $T$ is $2*5^9*11^2*13$

Assume $n>=P$, and $n\#>=t*T+2*t$, then clearly $t$ is a divisor of $n\#$, ie $n\#/t$ is integer. If we look at $X=n\#/t-T$ then $n\#$ and $T$ have disjoint prime factors and in totality these are all the primes up to $n$. Thus all prime factors of $X$ are greater than $n$. As $X=n\#/t-T>=2$, $X$ has at least one prime factor $q$, and so $X=n\#/t-T>=q>n$, ie $n\#/t-T>=n+1$, thus $n\#-T*t>=t*n+t$ ie $n\#>=t*n+t+T*t$ and we have the generalisation:

if $t$ is a product of distinct primes, with maximum one $P$, and if $T$ is the same product but with some or none of the exponents boosted, then if $n>=P$ AND $n\#>=t*T+2*t$ then $n\#>=t*n+t+T*t$

example: $t=2*3*5=30$ and $T=2^2*3*5=60$, $P=5$, so if $n>=5$ AND $n\#>=30*60+2*30=1860$ which is the same as $n>=11$, then $n\#>=30*n+30+60*30=30*n+1830$

which paraphrases to:

if $n>=11$ then $n\#>=30*n+1830$.

for the case of $n=11$, it says $11\#=2310>=30*11+1830=330+1830=2160$ which is a more accurate estimate than the one earlier.

The optimal lower bounds for $n$ will be prime, eg $n>=11$, and for a particular lower bound for $n$ eg $n>=q$, eg $q=11$ we can maximise the constant factor of $n$ for the lower bound for $n\#$, by manually finding the maximum $q>=2*t+t^2$, and then the maximum $q>=2*t+t*T$ for this $t$. eg for $q=11$, manually we find $t=2*3*7=T$ and get the following theorem:

if $n>=11$ then $n\#>=42*n+1806$,

for $n=11$ this says $2310=11\#>=42*11+1806=2268$ and for $n=12$ this says $2310=12\#>=42*12+1806=2310$

Further to a question by Keith Backman, $M$ and $t$ are squarefree and $>1$, for the case where $M=1$ or $t=T=1$, you can drop the condition that $n>=P$ as the proofs work then without that condition. When I say product of distinct primes I mean the factorisation is eg $2*7*11*13*23*37$, but not eg $2*3*3$, because the second and 3rd primes are the same, namely $3$ here and also that there is at least one prime eg $M=3$, $t=5,T=25$ are ok. I need $n>=max(primefactors(M))=P$ for the proof to work, unless $M=1$ when that condition can be omitted.

with my original post I blundered as regards non squarefree, but I have corrected that error, so reread my editted posts.

Now if the original inequality really is equivalent to Bertrand's Postulate, then we could get a proof of that, but I dont know how to proceed!

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    Nice work. Essentially, the quantitative bound from Euclid’s proof of the infinitude of primes, while much weaker than Bertrand, is sufficient here. Bertrand would imply something like $n# \gg c^{(\log n)^2}$ which is a significantly stronger bound. I don’t think it’s equivalent. – Erick Wong Jul 09 '20 at 03:12
  • Looks like a great insight to me. The only thing I would make clear is that when you say $M$ is a product of distinct primes $p$, you mean strictly that any particular prime is a factor of $M$ only once, i.e. $M$ is square free; I think that this is implied but not specifically stated. Otherwise, $\frac{n#}{M}$ will not be an integer. – Keith Backman Jul 09 '20 at 15:28
  • @Erick Wong, could you redo that formula because it didnt format correctly! – Commenter Jul 09 '20 at 15:47
  • @Keith Backman, the proof as it stands is that M is squarefree $>1$. For $M=1$ you can drop the condition $n>=P$, same for the generalisation with $t$ and $T$: $t$ is square free $>1$ but for $t=1$ you can drop the condition $n>=P$. – Commenter Jul 09 '20 at 15:47
  • @Commenter Sorry about that. I can’t edit it right now but the formula should be $n# \gg \exp(c (\log n)^2 )$ for some $c>0$. – Erick Wong Jul 09 '20 at 15:55
  • @Erick Wong, for large n the "professional" formula you give will always outdo the bounds I derived. But as a matter of "sport" I like studying what can be derived via elementary means. For instance if one experiences the limits of what you can do by elementary methods, one then appreciates more the professional methods. If you derive X using methodology Y, I find it interesting to work on the methodology. With time some people rederive existing results in simpler ways. Constraining methodology can lead to new ideas. I think its good to try and fail! as it leads to respect of a problem. – Commenter Jul 09 '20 at 23:37
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    @Erick Wong, but at the same time I also am interested in more sophisticated ways of deriving things than the standard method! I find it interesting when there are incomparably different methodologies to accomplish something. At uni, some of our lecturers said its good to have coordinate free definitions and derivations. Essentially what I am saying is that methodology itself is something to study and one can assess the methodology of a derivation and eg consider the total work to derive from first principles, including the work to derive the results quoted eg Bertrands Postulate! – Commenter Jul 10 '20 at 00:51
  • @Commenter Sure, I am all for exploring the reach of elementary methods. But I didn’t give the above bound because it is more “professional” (had that been the point I would have used the much stronger bound from Prime Number Theorem). I simply used it as evidence that it is unlikely to deduce Bertrand from these methods, because Bertrand’s yields an exponentially better bound on $n#$ (which is itself exponentially worse than PNT). I feel it was premature for another commenter to suggest that the weaker (desired) bound needed Bertrand, and I’m glad your perseverance paid off! – Erick Wong Jul 12 '20 at 22:34
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    @Erick Wong I have managed to prove some further things using elementary methods, in particular that if p>=5 is prime and q is the next prime, then the sets {p#-2,p#-3,...,p#-(q-1)} and {p#+2,...,p#+q-1} are all disjoint AND composite, no overlapping. Also if r is the next prime after q, then q#-p#>=q+r, Bertrand obviously gives a much better bound for r, namely 2q. Bertrand repeatedly presents simpler proofs, Its like different gears! elementary, Bertrand, PNT. I think we should call it Joseph Bertrand's postulate to disambiguate from Bertrand Russell! – Commenter Jul 14 '20 at 16:20
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For $5\le p_k\le n< p_{k+1}$, to prove $n\# \ge 3n$ it is sufficient to prove $p_k\#>3p_{k+1}$. Since $5=p_3$, $p_k\#\ge 2\cdot 3\cdot p_k = 6p_k$.

So you need to show that $6p_k\ge 3p_{k+1} \Rightarrow 2p_k>p_{k+1}$

This last formulation is known as Bertrand's postulate, which has been proved, although the proof is beyond a simple exposition in this forum.

  • The author wants an even simpler argument. – Peter Jul 07 '20 at 18:11
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    Bertrand's postulate is quite a tough result, whereas my inequality seems very weak, thus it is philosophically unsatisfactory to use a very powerful result to prove a weak result. $n#$ grows thus: $1,2,6,6,30,30,210,210,210,210,2310,2310,30030,30030,30030,30030,510510,etc$ we want bigger than $n/a,n/a,n/a,n/a,15,18,21,24,27,30,33,36,39,42,45,48,51,etc$ respectively, seems MUCH WEAKER than Bertrand's postulate! – Commenter Jul 07 '20 at 18:20
  • so eg just by looking at $19#=9699690$ that trivially proves the result for all $5<=n<=9699690/3=3233230$. By the time you reach that upper bound, $n#$ will have become ginormous beyond comprehension, with the result now established for truly ginormous numbers. I feel there is something obvious eluding me! Bertrand's Postulate does work, but we are glossing over something basic. – Commenter Jul 07 '20 at 18:37
  • @Commenter With reference to the inequalities in my answer, for $n\ge 5$, you have to show that $2p_k>p_{k+1}$. If you had chosen $n\ge 7$, then it would be sufficient to prove $10p_k>p_{k+1}$; for $n\ge 11$, prove $70p_k>p_{k+1}$. Your observation that proving $m\cdot p_k>p_{k+1}$ seems like it should be easier as $m$ gets larger has a lot of intuitive appeal, but eventually, you need a proof for some specific value of $m$. The only such proof I am aware of is Bertrand's Postulate, which serves for all cases, beginning with your original $n\ge 5$. – Keith Backman Jul 07 '20 at 19:35
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    @Keith Backman you say that essentially I am on a fool's errand for the general case! But do you think there could be a simple proof for some specific genres of numbers other than products of distinct primes, or do you think its a fools errand for anything other than products of distinct primes? – Commenter Jul 07 '20 at 19:58
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    @Commenter Don't be too negative about your instincts. My point is that using the approach I outlined you have to prove something for some value of $m$, and Bertrand's Postulate proves that something for $m=2$. Nobody is aware of any other approach at present, and lots of people have thought about this long and hard, so proof by another route is not likely. Nonetheless, unknown things remain unknown until they are discovered, so it is not impossible that you or some other mathematician might develop a different line of attack which is simpler than Bertrand. – Keith Backman Jul 08 '20 at 15:28
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    @Keith Backman I have found a trivial solution of the inequality, and also a trivial solution for finding arbitrarily good lower bounds, see my answer to my post. If it really is equivalent to Bertrand's Postulate, then we could get a trivial solution to that, but I dont know how to proceed. – Commenter Jul 09 '20 at 02:35
  • @Commenter I don’t think Keith’s comment was intended to imply that a weak form of Bertrand’s postulate is equivalent to the original problem. Only that this particular proof doesn’t go through without such an input. – Erick Wong Jul 12 '20 at 22:44