Please check my proof. Thank you!
Proof: $11,111,1111,...$ can all be written as follows $\underbrace{111...}_{\text{k times}}=1+10(\sum_{i=0}^{k-2}10^n)$
Let us assume $1+10(\sum_{i=0}^{k-2}10^n)=s^2$ where $s\in\Bbb{Z}$.
Then this means $s^2|1$ and $s^2|10$. The only possible $s^2$ is then $1$.
It is obvious that $1$ does not work. So this means there is no $s$ such that $1+10(\sum_{i=0}^{k-2}10^n)=s^2$. So we conclude that none of $11,111,1111,...$ are squares of an integer.
Edit: Once again... this proof is wrong. Please look at the answers below.
Correct Attempt: I shall try induction. We see that $11\cong3(\text{mod 4})$ . Now assume that $\underbrace{111...}_{\text{k times}}\cong3(\text{mod 4})$
Then for $\underbrace{111...}_{\text{k+1 times}}$ we see that the last dividend in the long division is $31$. So the largest possible last digit is $7$ and $7\times4=28$ and $31-28=3$. The remainder is therefore $3$. And so, $\underbrace{111...}_{\text{k+1 times}}\cong3(\text{mod 4})$. However, we know that square numbers(mentioned to me by https://math.stackexchange.com/users/279515/brahadeesh ) are either $0$ or $1$ in $\text{mod 4}$. So we conclude that all of them cannot be perfect squares.