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I am seeking infinite formulas connect transcendentals and rationals. We know $$e = \sum_{n = 0}^\infty \frac{1}{n!} = \frac{1}{0!} + \frac{1}{1!} + \frac{1}{2!} + \frac{1}{3!} + \frac{1}{4!} + \cdots$$

as an example of infinite sum of rational numbers which approaches the transcendental e. Is there an infinite product exists as a kind of dual counterpart of the above Euler's formula? i.e. which transcendentals $\{x_n\}$ satisfied

$$1 = \prod_{n = 0}^\infty x_n$$

The beauty the better, just like Euler's version.

PrincessEev
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Mountain
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1 Answers1

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The gamma function $\Gamma(x)$ satisfies the identity below, where $\gamma$ denotes the Euler-Mascheroni constant. The identity is evidently a result of the Weierstrass factorization theorem (see the examples section).

$$\frac{1}{\Gamma(x)} = xe^{\gamma x} \prod_{n=1}^\infty \left(1 + \frac x n \right) e^{-x/n}$$

Take $x=1$. Then, since $\Gamma(x) = (x-1)!$ for positive integers $x$, and $0!=1$, we get

$$1 = e^\gamma \prod_{n=1}^\infty \left(1 + \frac 1 n \right) \frac{1}{\sqrt[n]e}$$

We don't know if $\gamma$ itself is transcendental or not (that question is still open), but the $n^{th}$ roots of $e$ are transcendental as a corollary of Lindemann-Weierstrass.


Some potential flaws with this:

  • This isn't a product from $0$ to $\infty$, but a shift of index fixes that
  • $e^\gamma$ isn't known to be transcendental, and it might somehow negate that of the factors $x_n = (1+1/n)e^{-1/n}$

Granted, I think there might be merit in this example - it certainly "feels" likely that the factors are transcendental, even if we can't quite prove that yet. There might also be merit in exploring Weierstrass factorization further for something that can be more surely seen to have transcendental factors. Perhaps with different functions, for instance?

PrincessEev
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    Nice example, but I do not think that we can prove that the factors , if we consider also $e^{\gamma}$, are actually transcendental, but it is quite likely. $e^{-\frac{1}{n}}$ is known to be transcendental because of the Lindemann-Weierstrass-theorem. – Peter Jul 03 '20 at 07:13
  • Mmm... fair point. I'll see if I can think of a better example, or delete mine when someone has a more proper answer then. – PrincessEev Jul 03 '20 at 07:15
  • Well, you should not delete it even if a better one appears. I decided to upvote it. – Peter Jul 03 '20 at 07:16
  • Thanks for the quick answer, @Eevee Trainer, the result is impressive. – Mountain Jul 03 '20 at 07:40