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I'm trying to proof that set of unitary operators on infinite Hilbert space is path-connected. That's why i need to show that for each unitary $U$ there is a self-adjoint $B$ such that $U=e^{iB}$. Any ideas on how to show that? Maybe by using the fact that every unitary operator is unitary equivalent to operator of multiplication by $f$ in some $L_{2}(\mu)$ ?

  • Perhaps you will gain inspiration by looking at proofs of Wigner's theorem. There are some suggested proofs referenced in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wigner%27s_theorem#Statement_of_Wigner's_theorem – Michael Levy Mar 28 '25 at 16:49
  • linked: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1358566/for-any-unitary-matrix-u-there-exists-a-hermitian-matrix-h-such-that-u-e/ – Michael Levy May 16 '25 at 20:31

2 Answers2

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Fix a Borel function $\varphi:\mathbb T=\{z\in\mathbb C:|z|=1\}\to [0,2\pi)$ such that $e^{i\varphi(z)}=z$. Put $B=\varphi(U)$ (here we're using Borel functional calculus). Then $B$ is self-adjoint, and $U=\exp(iB)$.

Aweygan
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  • Thank you for your answer! i have 2 questions - 1) are we able to take function of unitary operators? is there any way to avoid it? 2) why it turns out that $В$ is self-adjoint? – matvey kormushkin May 21 '20 at 07:42
  • Yes, the Borel functional calculus works for normal elements, and unitaries are certainly normal. 2) Because the range of $\varphi$ is a subset of $\mathbb R$.
  • – Aweygan May 21 '20 at 13:12
  • Thank you! Can you recommend any book where i can find these facts? – matvey kormushkin May 21 '20 at 14:36
  • I think chapter 12 of Conway's "A Course in Functional Analysis" is a great reference. Other than that, chapter 1 or 2 of Murphy's "Operator Theory and $C^*$-algebras" should contain the information needed. – Aweygan May 21 '20 at 14:38
  • @Aweygan Sir, is there any Borel function $\varphi$ exists satisfying aforementioned condition? I mean, can you please help me to find an example of such function $\varphi$? – abcdmath Nov 03 '22 at 22:15
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    @abcdmath If we let $\varphi(z)=\operatorname{arg}(z)$ for $z\in\mathbb T\setminus{1}$ then $\varphi$ is well-defined, and continuous. Setting $\varphi(1)=0$, we lose continuity, but $\varphi$ is still Borel, and and satisfies $e^{i\varphi(z)}=z for all $z\in\mathbb T}$. – Aweygan Nov 04 '22 at 16:41