Let $\Omega \subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$ be a nice domain with smooth boundary (say a ball), and let $f:\Omega \to \mathbb{R}^n$ be smooth. Set $\Omega_0=\{ x \in \Omega \, | \, \det df_x =0 \} $
Is there an elementary way to prove that $m(f(\Omega_0))=0$? ($m$ is the Lebesgue measure).
I know that this follows from the (co)area formula or Sard's theorem*, but is there a way that avoids them?
Edit:
In this answer, zhw proves that if $x \in \Omega_0$, and $B(r)$ is an Euclidean ball of radius $r$ centered at $x$, then $\frac{m(f(B(r))}{m(B(r))} \to 0$.
Since $\Omega_0$ is compact, we can proceed as follows:
Cover $\Omega_0$ by finitely many balls $B_i$ with radius $r$, centered around points that belong $\Omega_0$. (The centers depend on $r$)Then,
$$ m(f(\Omega_0)) \le \sum_i m(f(B_i))=\sum_i \frac{m(f(B_i))}{m(B_i)}m(B_i).$$
If we could prove that $\frac{m(f(B_i))}{m(B_i)} \to 0$ when $r \to 0$ uniformly in $i$, then we could get $$ m(f(\Omega_0)) \le o(1) \sum_i m(B_i)=o(1) \sum_i m(B(r)). $$ Since we can cover $\Omega_0$ by $N(r)$ balls of radius $r$ with centers in $\Omega_0$, where $N(r) \le c \frac{1}{m(B(r))}$, we could conclude that $m(f(\Omega_0)) \le o(1)$, so it must be zero.
The problem is that I am not sure if $\frac{m(f(B_{x_i(r)}(r)))}{m(B_{x_i(r)}(r))} $ converges to zero independently of $i$. I asked about this separately here.
*If I am not mistaken, then Sard's theorem implies that almost every $y \in \mathbb R^n$ is a regular value of $f$- so it doesn't have a preimage in $\Omega_0$.
**I don't know an elementary proof even in the case where $\Omega_0=\Omega$. That is, even if we assume the the domain where the Jacobian vanishes is "open and nice" I don't know if its trivial. In general, $\Omega_0$ is an arbitrary closed set, which might be pretty complicated.