"Suppose X and Y are independent random variables, each exponentially distributed with parameter $\lambda$. Determine the probability density function for $Z=\frac{X}{Y}$."
Here is what I have so far: I recognise $f_X(x)=\lambda e^{-\lambda x}$, $f_Y(y)=\lambda e^{-\lambda y}$, $f_{XY}(x,y)=\lambda e^{-\lambda {(x+y)}}$. In addition to $Z=\frac{X}{Y}$, it was suggested I use a second equation V=X+Y to solve for X and Y in terms of V and Z. I know the algebra simplifies to $X=\frac{ZV}{Z+1}$ and $Y=\frac{V}{Z+1}$ (thankfully I remembered algebraic manipulation from high school physics). I believe I am now trying to find $f_{ZY}(z,y)=f_{XY}(x,y)|J[x(z,v),y(z,v)]|$, where |J[x(z,v),y(z,v)]| is the Jacobian.
I've determined the Jacobian to be $\frac{v}{(z+1)^2}$. Which makes $f_{ZY}(z,y)=\lambda e^{-\lambda {(x+y)}}\frac{v}{(z+1)^2}=\frac{v\lambda^2e^{-\lambda v}}{(z+1)^2}$ when the appropriate X and Y substitutions are made. I'm informed by the answer key this simplifies to $\frac{1}{(z+1)^2}\lambda^2e^{-\lambda v}$=$f_Z(z)f_V(v)$ where $f_Z(z)=\frac{1}{(z+1)^2}$.
I disagree, saying the probability density function should be $f_Z(z)=\frac{v}{(z+1)^2}$ based on the work I provided. Can someone please clarify this for me? Is it a misprint where $f_V(v)=v\lambda^2e^{-\lambda v}$ instead?