Usually the first example of a K3 surface presented to us is the Fermat quartic $x_0^4+x_1^4+x_2^4+x_3^4=0$ in $\Bbb{P}_\Bbb{C}^3$.
But I've just found out that actually any smooth quartic in $\Bbb{P}^3$ is K3, and I'm trying to understand why.
I know that since $S\subset\Bbb{P}^3$ is a smooth quartic, then in terms of linear equivalence we have $S\sim 4H$, where $H\subset \Bbb{P}^3$ is a hyperplane. By the adjunction formula: $$K_S=(K_{\Bbb{P} ^3}+S)\big|_S\sim(-4H+4H)\big|_S=0$$
Now, to prove that $h^1(S,\mathcal{O}_S)=0$, I have no idea what to do.
I imagine that the Fermat quartic has nothing special, and we should be able to prove $h^1=0$ for any smooth quartic without additional difficulties. But I really don't know how to do that.