I am trying to understand projective modules while avoiding as much as possible the use of exact sequences and category theory.
The definition I am using is that a module $P$ is projective if it is the direct summand of a free module, that is, there exists $M$ so that $M \oplus P = R^m$ for some $m$.
I would like to prove that for every surjective homomorphism $f: N \to P$ there exists injective $g: P \to N$ so that $f \circ g = id$. In fact, all I really need is that (taking $N = R^n$) the map $f: R^n \to P$ has an inverse to use the fact quoted here.
This seems to almost obviously be true without the assumption that $M$ is projective (and indeed is not true, the inverse to the surjection above won't necessarily be injective), but I doubt it. All the proofs that I have found rely on either going through the definition of split exact sequences, or uses some very involved category theory. My question: Is there a way to prove this statement and avoid all of the above?