I have to find, whether a CNF formula is satisfiable. I got multiple sets of clauses and of them is empty: $T(d)_{~} = \emptyset.$
Why isn't the $T(d)$ empty clause, if it contains no clauses, but it is an empty set of clauses?
I have to find, whether a CNF formula is satisfiable. I got multiple sets of clauses and of them is empty: $T(d)_{~} = \emptyset.$
Why isn't the $T(d)$ empty clause, if it contains no clauses, but it is an empty set of clauses?
Remember how you convert a CNF formula to clauses. For example, something like:
$(A \lor B) \land (\neg A \lor C \lor D) \land (\neg B \lor \neg C \lor \neg D)$
becomes the clause set:
$\{ \{ A , B \}, \{\neg A , C , D \} , \{ \neg B , \neg C , \neg D\} \}$
OK, but this means that an individual clause corresponds to a generalized disjunction, while the clause set as a whole corresponds to a generalized conjunction.
Now, a generalized disjunction is true iff at least one of its disjuncts is true. But, an empty clause, which corresponds to a generalized disjunction with $0$ disjuncts, clearly cannot have at least one true disjunct. Hence, an empty clause corresponds to a contradiction.
On the other hand, a generalized conjunction is true iff all of its conjuncts are true. Well, this would trivially be the case if there are no conjuncts at all: all zero of them are true! So, a generalized conjunction with $-$ conjuncts corresponds to a tautology. Hence, an empty clause set, which corresponds to a generalized conjunction with $-$ conjuncts, is a tautology.