Let $S,T$ be self-adjoint bounded operators on a complex Hilbert space. In this post, it is shown that $\sigma(ST)\subset\mathbb{R}$. The answerer uses that $\sigma(ST)\cup\{0\}=\sigma(TS)\cup\{0\}$ and that $\sigma(U)=\sigma(U^{*})^{*}$ for any operator $U$. I know that these results are indeed true. But how does he use these results to conclude that $\sigma(ST)\subset\mathbb{R}$?
If I play around with his arguments, I find that $$\sigma(ST)\cup\{0\}=\sigma(TS)\cup\{0\}=\sigma((TS)^{*})^{*}\cup\{0\}=\sigma(S^{*}T^{*})^{*}\cup\{0\}=\sigma(ST)^{*}\cup\{0\}.$$
But, for example, $\mathbb{C}^{*}=\mathbb{C}$ and of course $\mathbb{C}\not\subset\mathbb{R}$.