On page 177 of my textbook Finite Group Theory by I. Martin Isaacs, it says:
Let $A$ and $N$ be finite groups, and suppose that $A$ acts on $N$ via automorphisms. The action of $A$ on $N$ is said to be Frobenius if $n^a\not=n$ whenever $n\in N$ and $a\in A$ are nonidentity elements. Equivalently, the action of $A$ on $N$ is Frobenius if and only if $C_N(a)=1$ for all nonidentity elements $a\in A$ and also if and only if $C_A(n)=1$ for all nonidentity elements $n\in N$.
I think I understand the “$C_A(n)$” part: $\forall n\in N$, $C_A(n)=1$ just means $\forall n\in N$, $\{a\in A\vert n^a=n\}=\{1\}$.
But I got confused when it comes to the “$C_N(a)$” part. It only assumed that $A$ acts on $N$, but not $N$ acts on $A$. If $N$ doesn’t act on $A$, how can we use the terms like “$C_N(a)$”?
If it were the action by conjugation, it would make sense. It’s easy to find that “$\forall n\in N$, $C_A(n)=\{a\in A\vert a^{-1}na=n\}=1\Leftrightarrow \forall a\in A$, $C_N(a)=\{n\in N\vert n^{-1}an=a\}=1$”. But here the “$a$” in “$n^a$” just represents an arbitrary abstract automorphism induced by $a$, not a specific one.
What have I missed? Thanks!