Suppose $x$ and $y$ are integers and $x^2$ is a multiple of $y^2$. Is $x$ necessarily a multiple of $y$?
Came across this question as part of a homework set. I tried the following: Suppose $x^2 \,\vert\, y^2$, then $x^2$ $=$ $ky^2$ for some k. Taking square roots on both sides, we end up with $x$ $=$ $\pm$$(\sqrt{k})$$y$.
However, I am unsure of how to proceed from this point. I believe we either need to prove or disprove the fact that $\sqrt{k}$ is an integer value for all values of $k$ but the method eludes me.