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Is there any hope for closed forms for expressions like: $$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^k}{(3k+i)!}\text{ and/or }\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{kx^k}{(3k+i)!}$$where $i\in\{0,1,2\}$?

I am interested because I am trying to find an answer to this question.

Thank you in advance and sorry if this is a duplicate.

drhab
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  • Notice the second series is merely the derivative of the first series multiplied by $x$. – CardioidAss22 Jan 31 '20 at 12:23
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    @Cardioid_Ass_22 Thank you, I see that it is the derivative of the first multiplied by $x$ (as you probably meant to say). – drhab Jan 31 '20 at 12:35

3 Answers3

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Hint:

$$ \sum\limits_{k = 0}^\infty {{{x^{\,k} } \over {\left( {3k + i} \right)!}}} = x^{-i/3} \sum\limits_{k = 0}^\infty {{{\left( {x^{1/3} } \right)^{\,3k + i} } \over {\left( {3k + i} \right)!}}} $$

and the last sum is a tri-section of $\exp(x^{1/3})$

So for instance $$ \sum\limits_{k = 0}^\infty {{{z^{\,3k} } \over {\left( {3k} \right)!}}} = {1 \over 3}\left( {e^{\,z} + 2e^{\, - z/2} \cos {{\sqrt 3 z} \over 2}} \right) $$ and have a look at the above link for the espressions for the other values of $i$.

And let me add that the $3$ tri-sections share the property of $\cosh, \, \sinh$ that the derivative of one equals the other with lower $i$, in cycle, as it is easily seen.

G Cab
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Let $$f_i(x)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^k}{(3k+i)!}$$

For $i\in \{0,1,2\}$.

First we manipulate the series for $f_1(x)$: $$f_1(x)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^k}{(3k+1)!}\implies f_1(x^3)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{3k}}{(3k+1)!}\implies xf_1(x^3)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{3k+1}}{(3k+1)!}$$

Taking the derivatives of both sides: $$\frac{d\left(xf_1(x^3)\right)}{dx}=\frac{d\left(\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{3k+1}}{(3k+1)!}\right)}{dx}=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{d\left(\frac{x^{3k+1}}{(3k+1)!}\right)}{dx}=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(3k+1)x^{3k}}{(3k+1)!}=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{3k}}{(3k)!}=f_0(x^3)$$

Performing similar manipulations on $f_2(x)$ yields $$\frac{d^2\left(x^2f_2(x^3)\right)}{dx^2}=f_0(x^3)$$

Lastly, if you consider the fact that each number is either congruent to either $0,1,$ or $2$ $\operatorname{mod} 3$, you get that $$e^x=\sum_{j=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^j}{j!}=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{3k}}{(3k)!}+\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{3k+1}}{(3k+1)!}+\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{3k+2}}{(3k+2)!}=f_0(x^3)+xf_1(x^3)+x^2f_2(x^3)$$

So $$e^x=f_0(x^3)+xf_1(x^3)+x^2f_2(x^3)$$

If we differentiate both sides wrt to $x$ twice we get $$\frac{d^2\left(e^x\right)}{dx^2}=\frac{d^2\left(f_0(x^3)\right)}{dx^2}+\frac{d^2\left(xf_1(x^3)\right)}{dx^2}+\frac{d^2\left(x^2f_2(x^3)\right)}{dx^2}$$

Using what we have already shown and the fact that $e^x$ is fixed under differentiation, we get $$e^x=\left(f_0(x^3)\right)''+\left(f_0(x^3)\right)'+f_0(x^3)$$

If we substitute $g(x)=f(x^3)$, we get $$e^x=g''(x)+g'(x)+g(x)$$ which is a simple ODE.

You can easily check that substituting $\frac{e^x}{3}$ for $g(x)$ will satisfy the above equation.

The general solution for the ODE is then given by $\frac{e^x}{3}+h(x)$ where $h(x)$ is the general solution for $$0=h''(x)+h'(x)+h(x)$$

From the basic theory of ODEs, we may find the genera $h(x)$ using the characteristic equation of the $h(x)$ ODE.

The roots are $$\frac{-1\pm i\sqrt{3}}{2}$$

Using this, the general solution for $g(x)$ becomes $\frac{e^x}{3}+Ae^{\frac{-1+ i\sqrt{3}}{2}x}+Be^{\frac{-1- i\sqrt{3}}{2}x}$ with $A$ and $B$ being arbitrary constants.

$f_0(x^3)$ is a special case $g(x)$ so by plugging in values of $x$ where $f_0(x^3)$ (or its first derivative) may be easily evaluated, we can solve for $A$ and $B$, and so solve for $f_0(x^3)$ and hence $f_0(x)$. Then using the relationships $f_1(x)$ and $f_2(x)$ have to $f_0(x)$, they may be solved for too.

Note: If there's anything wrong or confusing in my answer, feel free to edit it (and comment please) or just comment

  • Thank you for this Cardioid. Not sure whether I will be able to digest this, but I will give it a try. – drhab Jan 31 '20 at 12:38
  • Have you every dealt with differential equations before? – CardioidAss22 Jan 31 '20 at 12:58
  • Yes, I have. But that was about $40$ years ago on college. I did not really like them because it was (or seemed to be) so much a matter of applying what I would call "smart tricks". As a result of that I mostly avoided the stuff. Solving things like $y''+y'+y=f(x)$ must be hiding somewhere in my mind but it is very dusty there. – drhab Jan 31 '20 at 13:30
  • Yeah, differential equations topics taught in high school/college are not generally put on rigorous footing. Here's a relevant link to the technique used in the answer but it only provides the general solution for the type of DE involved - the page doesn't give proofs or much insight (this would require some formal linear algebra background). If there's any aspect of the answer that doesn't sit right with you or seems incorrect, feel free to let me know and I will try to explain it or correct my answer. – CardioidAss22 Jan 31 '20 at 13:39
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Considering $$f_i=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^k}{(3k+i)!}\qquad \text{and} \qquad g_i=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{kx^k}{(3k+i)!}$$ a CAS gives $$f_i=\frac{1}{i!}\,\, _1F_3\left(1;\frac{i+1}{3},\frac{i+2}{3},\frac{i+3}{3};\frac{x}{27}\right)$$ $$g_i=\frac{x}{(i+3)!}\,\, _1F_3\left(2;\frac{i+4}{3},\frac{i+5}{3},\frac{i+6}{3};\frac{x}{27}\right)$$ Only for the specific cases you asked for $(i=0,1,2)$, we can write the results in a nice form, defining $$F_i=3 e^{\frac{t}{2 \sqrt{3}}}\left(\frac{t}{\sqrt3}\right)^{i-1}\,f_i-e^{\frac{\sqrt{3} }{2}t}\qquad \text{where} \qquad \color{red}{t=\sqrt{3} \sqrt[3]{x}}$$ $$F_0=2 \cos \left(\frac{t}{2}\right)\qquad F_1=-2 \sin \left(\frac{\pi}{6} -\frac{t}{2}\right)\qquad F_2=-2 \sin \left(\frac{\pi}{6} +\frac{t}{2}\right)$$

It seems that for $f_i$ there is no problem for the expansion for any $i$. For $g_i$, it does not seem to be the same story at all except for $i=0$ (in such a case $g_0=x f_0'$).

$$g_0=\frac{t}{9 \sqrt{3}}e^{\frac{t}{\sqrt{3}}}\left(1-2 e^{-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}t} \sin \left(\frac{\pi}{6} +\frac{t}{2} \right)\right)$$

  • Thank you, Claude. Very impressive for guys like me (i.e. having a very small scope on analytics and special functions). – drhab Jan 31 '20 at 12:08
  • @drhab. You are welcome ! A CAS just did it it for you. I just clicked the mouse. Cheers :-) – Claude Leibovici Jan 31 '20 at 12:10
  • I see now that $f(i)$ and $g(i)$ are actually defined the same way, and probably that is not your intention. Did you forget a factor $k$ by writing $g(i)$ maybe? – drhab Jan 31 '20 at 12:11
  • @drhab. I shall look at that tomorrow. It is dinner time here. Cheers – Claude Leibovici Jan 31 '20 at 17:19