In Elementary Clasical Analysis, (Marsden) (page 318, #14)
Let $f:X \rightarrow X$ be a contraction on a compact metric space $X$. Show that $\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty f^n(X)$ is a single point, where $f^n = f \circ f \circ \cdot \cdot \cdot \circ f$ ($n$ times). Is this true if $X = \mathbb{R}$?
I can prove the first part, using this discussion to show that $\exists \; x_0 \in \bigcap_{n=1}^\infty f^n(X)$. (The uniqueness proof is similarly straightforward).
The second part:
Is this true if $X = \mathbb{R}$?
This seems completely obvious because $\mathbb{R}$ is a compact metric space. But I don't understand why he would have bothered to ask if it was really that simple? Am I missing something?