There are several things that confuse me about this proof, so I was wondering if anybody could clarify them for me.
Lemma Let $G$ be a group of order $30$. Then the $5$-Sylow subgroup of $G$ is normal.
Proof We argue by contradiction. Let $P_5$ be a $5$-Sylow subgroup of $G$. Then the number of conjugates of $P_5$ is congruent to $1 \bmod 5$ and divides $6$. Thus, there must be six conjugates of $P_5$. Since the number of conjugates is the index of the normalizer, we see that $N_G(P_5) = P_5$.
Why does the fact that the order of $N_G(P_5)$ is 5 mean that it is equal to $P_5$?
Since the $5$-Sylow subgroups of $G$ have order $5$, any two of them intersect in the identity element only. Thus, there are $6\cdot4 = 24$ elements in $G$ of order $5$. This leaves $6$ elements whose order does not equal $5$. We claim now that the $3$-Sylow subgroup, $P_3$, must be normal in $G$.
The number of conjugates of $P_3$ is congruent to $1 \bmod 3$ and divides $10$. Thus, if $P_3$ is not normal, it must have $10$ conjugates. But this would give $20$ elements of order $3$ when there cannot be more than $6$ elements of order unequal to $5$ so that $P_3$ must indeed be normal.
But then $P_5$ normalizes $P_3$, and hence $P_5P_3$ is a subgroup of $G$. Moreover, the Second Noether Theorem gives
$(P_5P_3)/P_3 \cong P_5/(P_5 \cap P_3)$.
But since $|P_5|$ and $|P_3|$ are relatively prime, $P_5 \cap P_3 = 1$, and hence $P_5P_3$ must have order $15$.
Why do we need to use the second Noether theorem? Why can't we just use the formula $\frac{|P_5||P_3|}{|P_3 \cap P_5|}$ to compute the order?
Thus, $P_5P_3 \cong Z_{15}$, by Corollary $5.3.17$. But then $P_5P_3$ normalizes $P_5$, which contradicts the earlier statement that $N_G(P_5)$ has order $5$.
Why do we have to realize that $P_5P_3$ is isomorphic to $Z_{15}$? Also, how can we conclude that $P_5P_3$ normalizes $P_5$?
Thanks in advance.