Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and assume that $B_r^d(x)=B_s^d(y)$ where: $$B_r^d=\{ a \in X | d(a,x) < r\}$$ Now, is it always true that
(a) $r=s$
(b) $x=y$
I made an elaborate argument on this question why both these statements should be true. However, I later doubted this conclusion. Lets take the following metric: $$d(x,y)=1 \text{ if } x\neq y,\ 0 \text{ if } x=y$$ Then $B_{0.5}^d(x)=B_{0.4}^d(x)=\{x\}$ assuming for the moment that the balls have the same centre. Does this mean that $r$ does not necessarily equal $s$? And how about if they do not have the same centre?