When stuck, an important method in dynamics is to try to prove something stronger. In this case,
$$\Phi(x,y) = (x-b,y+b-a) \mod 1$$
is an affine automorphism of the torus such that $\Phi\circ g = f\circ \Phi$.
Jokes aside, below are two ways to see why an affine automorphism might suffice; once one realizes an affine conjugacy works then one can use your observation that any bijective conjugacy must preserve sets of fixed points (in this case a simple calculation gives that both $f$ and $g$ have unique fixed points). This gives the translation part of the automorphism. Next, differentiating the conjugacy equation one realizes that one can take the linear part to be identity.
First approach is through general ergodic theory. A classical theorem of Adler-Palais states that for $A,B$ two affine automorphisms of the $n$-torus (see e.g. Example of a continuous affine group action), if both $A$ and $B$ are ergodic (relative to Haar), then any homeomorphism conjugating them must be affine. It's well-known that $g$ is ergodic, and one can check that $f$ too is ergodic (for instance using the Hoare-Parry criterion). See Walters' paper "Topological Conjugacy of Affine Transformations of Tori" for details.
Second approach is through hyperbolic dynamics. A computation shows that the stable and unstable manifolds of $f$ and $g$ (as discussed in e.g. Is the square root of a hyperbolic map hyperbolic?) are translations of images of eigenspaces of the two-one-one-one matrix, and any topological conjugacy must send stable manifolds to stable manifolds and unstable manifolds to unstable manifolds. Products of pieces of stable and unstable manifolds give neighborhoods ("local product structure"), and after some work one can show that identity up to a translation is a conjugacy.