This is an exercise from my introduction to real analysis course, this does not count for marks. I saw several people said $\sum\limits_{n = 0}^{\infty}n!x^{n}$, I mean this power series clearly has a radius of convergence that is 0, but how can one know that it is some function's Taylor series? Or is there any other example? Please advise, thank you.
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See also 620290 – almagest Nov 26 '19 at 09:31
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I don't know any explicit example but it is well known that there is a $C^{\infty}$ function $f$ with $f^{(n)}(0)=(n!)^{2}$ for all $n$. [ We can in fact prescribe the derivatives arbitrarily]. Obviously we cannot define $f$ by the series $\sum (n!)x^{n}$. The existence of $f$ is special case of Borel's Lemma.
Kavi Rama Murthy
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