Let $\sin^2(x\pi)$ be a function from $\mathbb{Q}$ to $\mathbb{R}$. Let $A$ be the image of this function. Is it true that $A\subset\mathbb{Q}$?
In basic trigonometry classes we learn that $\sin{\frac{\pi}{3}}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} $ and that $\sin{\frac{\pi}{4}}=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}$. So in this case the property holds. Is it true $\forall x\in\mathbb{Q}$?
If not, is it possible to find all $x$ rational that do obey the rule and those $x$ rational that doesn't?
Moreover, I think that you are mixing up the image of a function and the codomain of a function.
– Fede1 Oct 30 '19 at 18:17