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I was integrating the Planck distribution and came across this integral:

$$\int_0^\infty \frac {1}{x^5\cdot \left(e^{\frac{a}{x}}-1\right)} dx$$

From this page: http://w.astro.berkeley.edu/~echiang/rad/ps1ans.pdf the given solution is

$$\int_0^\infty \frac {1}{x^5\cdot \left(e^{\frac{1}{x}}-1\right)}dx = \frac {\pi^4}{15} $$

and I could analytically work out that the general solution is

$$\int_0^\infty \frac {1}{x^5\cdot \left(e^{\frac{a}{x}}-1\right)}dx = \frac {\pi^4}{15a^4} $$

I was wondering how one could prove this, and if my general solution is accurate or not.

Zacky
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