I am wondering the reason of the introduction of Lebesgue measurable function after Borel measurable function.
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1Because we want to have a complete measure on the real line. – Xander Henderson Sep 29 '19 at 01:05
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https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/267991/differences-between-the-borel-measure-and-lebesgue-measure – angryavian Sep 29 '19 at 01:06