Let $p:E \rightarrow B$ be a Hurewicz fibration. It is known that if $B$ is path connected, then the fibres over any two points in $B$ are homotopy equivalent.
Question: Is there a simple proof of the above?
I understand that "simple" is subjective, but any proof at all (or reference) is welcome - the "simpler" the better.
Anyway, I am struggling to prove this myself. I get the idea that this shouldn't be difficult, but I can't really get anywhere at all. Given $b, b' \in B$, I am struggling to even write down a sensible map from $p^{-1}(b)$ to $p^{-1}(b')$.
My attempt:
Let $b,b' \in B$. I wish to construct a map $f: p^{-1}(b) \rightarrow p^{-1}(b')$ (which I hope to eventually prove to be a homotopy equivalence).
Trying to write a map $f$ down explicitly doesn't seem to help: Let $e \in p^{-1}(b)$. Now what? What should $f(e)$ be?
So instead we try to exploit universal properties, and infer the existence of $f$ or even a unique $f$.
$p^{-1}(b)$ is a pull-back of the diagram
$$E \rightarrow B \hookleftarrow *$$
where $*$ is included at $b$.
On the other hand, $p^{-1}(b')$ is a pull-back of $$E \rightarrow B \hookleftarrow *$$ where $*$ is included at $b'$.
The problem now is that my inclusions of $*$ aren't the same map, so it doesn't seem that I can exploit the universal property of the pullback in the way that I want.
I cannot think of a useful way to exploit the fact that $p$ is a Hurewicz fibration without first having maps between the fibres.