Is the set of all function vanishing at both $0$ and $1$ is maximal ideal ? Yes/no
My attempt : i know that it will not prime ideal take $f(x) = x-1 $ and $ g(x) = x$. where $f, g \in C[0,1]$
But here im confused about maximal ideal.?
I thinks yes
Is the set of all function vanishing at both $0$ and $1$ is maximal ideal ? Yes/no
My attempt : i know that it will not prime ideal take $f(x) = x-1 $ and $ g(x) = x$. where $f, g \in C[0,1]$
But here im confused about maximal ideal.?
I thinks yes
I'll suppose the ring in question is $C[0,1]$. Let the proposed ideal be $I$. Now, $I$ is not prime as you have noted (since $fg \in I$ but $f \not \in I, g \not \in I$), but then surely it cannot be maximal.
(There seems to be some confusion about maximality and primality. One very important fact is that every maximal ideal is prime. You can read this up in every elementary abstract algebra book. So if $I$ were maximal, then it has to be prime. But that isn't the case as you have shown.)
Hint: Consider the set of all functions vanishing at $0$. It is an ideal. How does it compare to the one you're asking the question about.